Published by Roma Rahul Gupta for Chhattisgarh Online
Below are some sample paper for the said exam. Though the level of difficulty may vary in the exam. However, the basis and the pattern will remain the same. As not many exam of Insurance have taken in the past so there no sure pattern, but believe me this question paper will have more or less same set of questions as below. We are also trying to chalk out more sample paper for other different section. They would be uploaded as soon as they are available. All the best and keep practicing. Hard and fast. And o remember that such exams are all about speed but speed should not come at the cost of accuracy.
1. The present Cash Reserve Ratio is—
(A) 5%
(B) 5.5%
(C) 6%
(D) 6.5%
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
2. One of the objectives of KYC (Know Your Customer) norms is—
(A) to give boost to bank deposits
(B) to safeguard banks advances
(C) to monitor transactions of suspicious nature
(D) to help income tax authorities to collect income tax
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
3. Contribution to Prime Minister's relief fund enjoys Income Tax benefit up to—
(A) 50% under section 80G
(B) 75% under section 80G
(C) 100% under section 80 G
(D) 100% under section 88
(E) No exemption is available
Ans : (C)
4. Which of the following activities are expected to be performed by the Business correspondents ?
(A) Disbursal of small value credit
(B) Collection of small value deposits
(C) Sale of micro insurance /mutual fund products
(D) All the three above
(E) Only (B) and (C) above
Ans : (E)
5. Tax at source by banks is deducted on interest paid on term deposits in the interest amount in a financial year exceeds—
(A) Rs. 3,000
(B) Rs. 5,000
(C) Rs. 10,000
(D) Rs. 15,000
(E) There is no such provision
Ans : (B)
6. Securitisation and Reconstruction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of security Interest Act relates to—
(A) Sanction of loans
(B) Enhancement of loan limits
(C) Recovery of loans
(D) All the above
(E) None of above
Ans : (C)
7. MSMED Act is applicable to—
(A) Smalls enterprises only
(B) Medium enterprises only
(C) Micro enterprises only
(D) Micro, Small and Medium enterprises
(E) All enterprises irrespective of their size engaged in manufacturing activity
Ans : (D)
8. Money Laundering refers to—
(A) Conversion of assets into cash
(B) Conversion of Money which is illegally obtained
(C) Conversion of cash into gold
(D) Conversion of gold into cash
(E) None of the above
Ans : (B)
9. The Monetary and Credit Policy is reviewed by the RBI after a gap of—
(A) one year
(B) one month
(C) two years
(D) five years
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
10. PPF account is opened for a period of—
(A) 5 years
(B) 10 years
(C) 15 years
(D) 20 years
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
11. Yuan is the currency of—
(A) Japan
(B) China
(C) Indonesia
(D) Myanmar
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
12. National savings certificate matures at the end of—
(A) Six years
(B) Three years
(C) Six and half years
(D) Five years
(E) Five and half years
Ans : (A)
13. Normally Bank accept Fixed Deposits for a maximum period of—
(A) 5 years
(B) 3 years
(C) 10 years
(D) 20 years
(E) Any number of years
Ans : (E)
14. Code of banks commitment to Micro and Small enterprises is prepared by—
(A) RBI
(B) SEBI
(C) FEDAI
(D) BCSBI
(E) Ministry of Small and Medium Enterprises
Ans : (E)
15. Which one of the following is not a salient feature of debit card ?
(A) No bad debts to banks and no suits for recovery
(B) No interest earning for banks
(C) Works like a normal withdrawal
(D) All the above
(E) 45 dayes credit is given to the card holder
Ans : (E)
16. IFRS stands for—
(A) International Financial Reporting standards
(B) Indian Financial Rating Standards
(C) International Financial Rating Standards
(D) All the three above
(E) None of the above
Ans : (A)
17. What is the present Repo Rate ?
(A) 5%
(B) 5•5%
(C) 6%
(D) 6•5%
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
18. There are certain financial instruments whose prices are derived from the price of the underlying currency of interest rate or stocks etc. These are known as—
(A) Derivatives
(B) Securitisation
(C) Leasing
(D) Factoring
(E) Venture Capital Funding
Ans : (A)
19. What is the full form of ASBA ?
(A) Allotment supported by Blocked Amount
(B) Application supported by Blocked Amount
(C) Application supported by Bank Amount
(D) Allotment supported by Bank Account
(E) None of the above
Ans : (B)
20. Reverse Repo is used by RBI to—
(A) Inject liquidity
(B) Absorb liquidity
(C) Increase the liquidity with banking system
(D) Keep the liquidity at one level
(E) None of the above
Ans : (D)
21. Which of the following is not considered as lending under infrastructure sector ?
(A) A Highway project
(B) Construction of Educational Institution
(C) Construction of Hospital
(D) Laying down of petroleum pipelines
(E) None of the above
Ans : (E)
22. KYC guidelines have been framed on the recommendations/as per guidelines of—
(A) Reserve Bank of India
(B) Ministry of Finance
(C) Indian Banks Association
(D) Financial Action Task Force
(E) Ministry of Home affairs
Ans : (A)
23. The term ‘Power of Attorney’ refers to—
(A) Power of a person
(B) An authority to operate a Bank account
(C) An instrument by which a person is empowered to act for another person
(D) All of the above
(E) None of the above
Ans : (C)
24. What is the amount of compensation to be paid per day, as per RBI directives in case of failed ATM transactions ?
(A) Rs. 50
(B) Rs. 100
(C) Rs. 200
(D) Rs. 500
(E) It is at the discretion of each Bank
Ans : (B)
25. Financial Action Task Force has an office in India at which place ?
(A) Mumbai
(B) Chennai
(C) Kolkata
(D) New Delhi
(E) All the above places
Ans : (D)
26. Bridge loans refer to—
(A) Loans granted to contruction companies for construction of bridges
(B) Loan granted to PWD for construction of bridges over Rivers
(C) Interim finance allowed by banks to their customers pending disbursement of term loans by financial institutions
(D) All of the above
(E) None of the above
Ans : (C)
27. Payment of Demand Draft can be stopped by—
(A) Payee
(B) Holder
(C) Purchaser
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
28. Can any one file an appeal against the order passed by the Banking Ombudsman ? If so who is the Appellate Authority ?
(A) The Chairman of concerned Bank
(B) The Deputy Governor RBI
(C) Governor of RBI
(D) Finance Minister
(E) None of the above
Ans : (B)
29. For which one of the following reasons, the Government has approved a plan to infuse Rs. 15,000 crore capital into PSBs ?
(A) To boost their lending capacity
(B) To maintain minimum CRAR as per Basel II norms
(C) To maintain NPA provision coverage ratio
(D) To strengthen the Balance Sheet of banks
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
30. What is monetary policy transmission ?
(A) It refers to monetary policy of Central Bank
(B) It refers to fiscal policy of Government
(C) It refers to various channels through which the monetary policy of a Central Bank alters prices or output in the real economy
(D) It refers to various channels through which the fiscal policy of the Government alters prices or output in the real economy
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
31. On which one of the following issue IMF has supported monetary policy of India ?
(A) Tightening of monetary policy
(B) Stimulus for agriculture sector
(C) Concessions for foreign investment
(D) Introduction of GST
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
32. The advantage of convenience in credit card operations is for—
(A) Customer
(B) Members Establishments
(C) Banks
(D) All the above
(E) None of the above
Ans : (D)
33. Under provisions of which one of the following Acts, CAs/CS have been told to report all suspicious fund trasnfers ?
(A) RBI Act
(B) Banking Regulation Act
(C) Indian Companies Act
(D) Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
34. Bancassurance is—
(A) an insurance scheme to insure bank deposits
(B) an insurance scheme exclusively for the employees of banks
(C) a composite financial service offering both bank and insurance product
(D) a bank deposits scheme exclusively for employees of insurance companies
(E) None of the above
Ans : (C)
35. In the term STRIPS, the first letter ‘S’ denotes—
(A) Separate
(B) Small
(C) Special
(D) Savings
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
36. Which of the following organizations, provide credit history of the borrowers ?
(A) CIBIL
(B) SEBI
(C) RBI
(D) CRISIL
(E) IBA
Ans : (A)
37. Loans/advances to farmers is treated as—
(A) Personal Loans
(B) Priority Sector Loan
(C) Business Loan
(D) Corporate Loan
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
38. Which one of the following Organisations maintains CRR ?
(A) RBI
(B) SEBI
(C) NABARD
(D) IBA
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
39. When the loan is granted for purchase of white goods it is called—
(A) Consumption loan
(B) White goods loan
(C) Consumer durable loan
(D) All the above
(E) None of the above
Ans : (C)
40. Which one of the following is the objective of Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act ?
(A) To provide 100 days employment to people in rural areas
(B) To provide employment to educated youth
(C) To provide employment under KVIC schemes
(D) To create more valuable rural assets
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
41. Structure of Basel II is based on how many pillars ?
(A) Two
(B) Three
(C) Four
(D) Eight
(E) Six
Ans : (B)
42. With which one of the following ‘Channel Financing’ is associated ?
(A) Retail Lending
(B) Corporate Lending
(C) SME Lending
(D) Supply Chain Finance
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
43. Expand the term FRBM—
(A) Financial Responsibility and Business Management
(B) Fiscal Responsibility and Business Management
(C) Financial Responsibility and Budget Management
(D) Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
44. A customer can approach Banking ombudsman if he does not get satisfactory response to his grievance from the bank within how many days ?
(A) 10 days
(B) 20 days
(C) 8 days
(D) 30 days
(E) 60 days
Ans : (D)
45. Which one of the following country is in talks with EU and International Monetary Fund, to exit from debt crisis ?
(A) Spain
(B) Turkey
(C) Portugal
(D) Greece
(E) Finland
Ans : (D)
46. For achieving 8•5 percent GDP growth in fiscal 2010-11, which one of the following should be percent growth in farm sector ?
(A) 2•0
(B) 2•5
(C) 3•0
(D) 4•0
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
47. According to a report submitted by IMF in its World Economic Outlook, which one of the following countries will have highest percent GDP growth rate in 2011 ?
(A) China
(B) India
(C) Brazil
(D) Russia
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
48. Which one of the following has given ‘Aadhaar’ as its new brand name ?
(A) UIDAI
(B) Sports Ministry, GOI
(C) Ministry of Tourism, GOI
(D) NHAI
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
49. Which of the following will help poor to come out of their poverty ?
1. Good Health Service
2. Freedom from illiteracy
3. Optimum Sex Ratio
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 1 and 2
(D) Only 3
(E) All 1, 2 and 3
Ans : (E)
50. Which one of the following is per cent Bank Rate ?
(A) 4.0
(B) 4.5
(C) 5
(D) 3.33
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
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1. If the following numbers are rewritten by interchanging the digits in ten’s place and hundred’s place and then arranging them in the descending order. What will be the second digit of the newly formed fifth number from your right ?
479, 736, 895, 978, 389, 675
(A) 3
(B) 4
(C) 5
(D) 6
Ans : (C)
2. P is 60 m South-East of Q. R is 60 m North-East of Q. Then R is in which direction of P ?
(A) North
(B) North-East
(C) South
(D) South-East
Ans : (A)
Directions—(Q. 3–5) Read the following information for answering the questions that follow—
On a playing ground A, B, C, D and E are standing as described below facing the North.
(i) B is 50 metres to the right of D.
(ii) A is 60 metres to the South of B
(iii) C is 40 metres to the West of D.
(iv) E is 80 metres to the North of A.
3. If a boy walks from C, meets D followed by B, A and then E, how many metres has he walked if he has travelled the straight distance all through ?
(A) 120
(B) 150
(C) 170
(D) 230
Ans : (D)
4. What is the minimum distance (in metre approximately) between C and E ?
(A) 53
(B) 78
(C) 92
(D) 120
Ans : (C)
5. Who is to the South-East of the person who is to the left of D ?
(A) A
(B) B
(C) C
(D) E
Ans : (A)
6. A man was walking in the evening just before the sun set. His wife said that, his shadow fell on his right. If the wife was walking in the opposite direction of the man, then which direction the wife was facing ?
(A) North
(B) West
(C) South
(D) East
Ans : (C)
Directions—(Q. 7–11) In each of the following questions choose the set of numbers from the four alternative sets that is similar to the given set.
7. Given set : (4, 9, 18)
(A) (8, 14, 22)
(B) (10, 15, 25)
(C) (6, 12, 23)
(D) (12, 17, 26)
Ans : (D)
8. Given set : (10, 14, 17)
(A) (4, 11, 14)
(B) (9, 12, 15)
(C) (8, 13, 18)
(D) (6, 9, 12)
Ans : (A)
9. Given set : (7, 27, 55)
(A) (21, 35, 52)
(B) (18, 42, 65)
(C) (16, 40, 72)
(D) (13, 30, 58)
Ans : (C)
10. Given set : (39, 28, 19)
(A) (84, 67, 52)
(B) (52, 25, 17)
(C) (70, 49, 36)
(D) (65, 45, 21)
Ans : (A)
11. Given set : (246, 257, 358)
(A) (233, 343, 345)
(B) (273, 365, 367)
(C) (143, 226, 237)
(D) (145, 235, 325)
Ans : (A)
Directions—(Q. 12–16) Each question contains six or seven statements followed by four sets of combinations of three. Choose the set in which the statements are logically related.
12. (1) All books are having pages.
(2) All kings are having pages.
(3) All kings are books.
(4) Some heavy things are having pages.
(5) Some heavy things are books.
(6) Some books are heavy.
(7) Some heavy things are having pages.
(A) 1, 2, 3
(B) 6, 1, 4
(C) 4, 6, 1
(D) 1, 5, 7
Ans : (D)
13. (1) No athletes are vegetarians.
(2) All cricket players are athletes.
(3) Some athletes play cricket.
(4) Some cricket players are vegetarians.
(5) No cricket player is a vegetarian.
(6) All athletes are vegetarians.
(A) 1, 2, 5
(B) 3, 4, 1
(C) 1, 5, 2
(D) 2, 5, 6
Ans : (A)
14. (1) All grandmothers cook well.
(2) No man is a grandmother.
(3) Some men do not cook well.
(4) All those who cook well are men.
(5) No one who cooks well is a man.
(6) All those who cook well are grandmothers.
(7) Some men are not grandmothers.
(A) 2, 6, 5
(B) 2, 5, 6
(C) 1, 4, 2
(D) 6, 4, 7
Ans : (B)
15. (1) Looting is a crime.
(2) Some crooked people are criminals.
(3) All those involved in looting are criminals.
(4) Some crooked people are involved in looting.
(5) All criminals are looked down in society.
(6) Some crooked people are not criminals.
(A) 1, 4, 6
(B) 3, 6, 2
(C) 1, 2, 6
(D) 3, 4, 2
Ans : (D)
16. (1) Some women are those who are successful in life.
(2) Some men are those who have patience.
(3) No man is a woman.
(4) All those who have patience are successful in life.
(5) Some who are successful in life are men.
(6) Some men are not those are successful in life.
(A) 1, 3, 6
(B) 4, 2, 6
(C) 1, 5, 3
(D) 2, 4, 5
Ans : (B)
Directions—(Q. 17–21) Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered (I) and (II). You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Give answers—
(A) If the data in statement (I) alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement (II) alone are not sufficient to answer the question;
(B) If the data in statement (II) alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement (I) alone are not sufficient to answer the questions;
(C) If the data even in both statements (I) and (II) together are not sufficient to answer the question;
(D) If the data in both statement (I) and (II) together are necessary to answer the question.
17. In which direction is Mahatmaji’s statue facing ?
I. The statue is towards the northern end of the city.
II. The statue’s shadow falls towards East at 5 O’clock in the evening.
Ans : (C)
18. What is the total number of pupils in the final year class ?
I. The number of boys in the final year class is twice as much as the number of girls in that class.
II. The sum of the ages of all the pupils in the class is 399 years and their average age is 19 years.
Ans : (B)
19. Who is the tallest among A, B, C and D ?
I. A is taller than C.
II. B is taller than C and D.
Ans : (C)
20. How many Sundays are there in a particular month of a particular year ?
I. The month begins on Monday.
II. The month ends on Wednesday.
Ans : (D)
21. What is the total number of pages in this book ?
I. I counted 132 pages from the beginning of this book.
II. My wife counted 138 pages starting from the end of the same book.
Ans : (C)
Directions—(Q. 22–26) In each of the questions given below, there is a statement followed by three assumptions numbered I, II and III. An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted. You have to consider the statement and assumptions and then decide, which of the assumption(s) is/are implicit in the statement.
22. Statement : During pre-harvest kharif seasons, the government has decided to release vast quantity of foodgrains from FCI.
Assumptions :I. There may be a shortage of foodgrains in the market during this season.
II. The kharif crop may be able to replenish the stock of FCI.
III. There may be a demand from the farmers to procure kharif crop immediately after harvest.
(A) None is implicit
(B) Only I and II are implicit
(C) Only II and III are implicit
(D) All are implicit
Ans : (D)
23. Statement : To improve the employment situation in India, there is a need to recast the present educational system towards implementation of scientific discoveries in daily life.
Assumptions :I. The students after completing such education may be able to earn their livelihood.
II. This may bring meaning of education in the minds of the youth.
III. The state may earn more revenue as more and more people will engage themselves in self employment.
(A) Only I and II are implicit
(B) Only III is implicit
(C) Only I and III are implicit
(D) None is implicit
Ans : (A)
24. Statement : To increase profit, the oil exporting countries decided to reduce the production of crude by 5 million barrels per day.
Assumptions :I. The price of crude may increase due to less production.
II. The demand of crude may remain same in future.
III. Other countries may continue buying crude from these countries.
(A) All are implicit
(B) Only II and III are implicit
(C) Only I and II are implicit
(D) None is implicit
Ans : (C)
25. Statement : “We do not want you to see our product on newspaper, visit our shop to get a full view.” – an advertisement.
Assumptions :I. People generally decide to purchase any product after seeing the name in the advertisement.
II. Uncommon appeal may attract the customers.
III. People may come to see the product.
(A) All are implicit
(B) None is implicit
(C) Only II and III are implicit
(D) Only I and II are implicit
Ans : (A)
26. Statement : The Reserve Bank of India has directed the banks to refuse fresh loans to major defaulters.
Assumptions :I. The banks may still give loans to the defaulters.
II. The defaulters may repay the earlier loan to get fresh loan.
III. The banks may recover the bad loans through such harsh measures.
(A) All are implicit
(B) None is implicit
(C) Both II and III are implicit
(D) Both I and II are implicit
Ans : (C)
Directions—(Q. 27–31) In questions given below, statements 1 and 2 are followed by conclusions I and II. Taking the statements to be right although they may seem at variance with commonly accepted facts, mark your answers as under—
(A) If only conclusion I follows.
(B) If only conclusion II follows.
(C) If both I and II follows.
(D) Neither I nor II follows.
27. Statements :1. All hands are machines.
2. All machines are wheels.
Conclusions :I. All wheels are hands.
II. All hands are wheels.
Ans : (B)
28. Statements :1. Some buds are leaves.
2. Some leaves are red.
Conclusions :
I. Some buds are red.
II. Some leaves are not buds.
Ans : (B)
29. Statements :
1. Some stones are shells.
2. All shells are pearls.
Conclusions :I. Some stones are pearls.
II. All pearls are shells.
Ans : (A)
30. Statements :1. Brown is red and blue is green.
2. Green is pink and yellow is red.
Conclusions :
I. Yellow is brown.
II. Pink is blue.
Ans : (C)
31. Statements :
1. Merchants who do not own cars do not have bicycles either.
2. Those who do not have bicycles have tricycles.
Conclusions :I. Some merchants have only tricycles.
II. No one has both, the car and the tricycles.
Ans : (D)
Directions—(Q. 32–36) A number arrangement machine, when given a particular input, rearranges it following a particular rule. The following is the illustration of the input and the stages of arrangement.
Input : 245, 316, 436, 519, 868, 710, 689
Step I : 710, 316, 436, 519, 868, 245, 689
Step II : 710, 316, 245, 519, 868, 436, 689
Step III : 710, 316, 245, 436, 868, 519, 689
Step IV : 710, 316, 245, 436, 519, 868, 689
Step IV is the last step of input.
32. If 655, 436, 764, 799, 977, 572, 333 is the input which of the following steps will be ‘333, 436, 572, 655, 977, 764, 799’ ?
(A) II
(B) III
(C) IV
(D) I
Ans : (B)
33. How many steps will be required to get the final output from the following input ?
Input : 544, 653, 325, 688, 461, 231, 857
(A) 5
(B) 4
(C) 3
(D) 6
Ans : (A)
34. For the given input, which of the following will be third step ?
Input : 236, 522, 824, 765, 622, 463, 358
(A) 522, 236, 765, 824, 622, 463, 358
(B) 522, 622, 236, 824, 765, 463, 358
(C) 522, 622, 236, 765, 824, 463, 358
(D) 522, 622, 236, 463, 824, 765, 358
Ans : (C)
35. If following is the second step for an input, what will be the fourth step ?
Step II : 620, 415, 344, 537, 787, 634, 977
(A) 620, 415, 344, 537, 634, 787, 977
(B) 620, 415, 344, 634, 537, 787, 977
(C) 620, 415, 344, 634, 787, 537, 977
(D) Can’t be determined
Ans : (B)
36. Which of the following is the last step for the following input ?
Input : 473, 442, 735, 542, 367, 234, 549
(A) 234, 442, 542, 473, 735, 367, 549
(B) 234, 442, 542, 735, 473, 367, 549
(C) 234, 442, 542, 473, 367, 735, 549
(D) 234, 442, 542, 735, 367, 473, 549
Ans : (A)
Directions—(Q. 37–41) Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below it—
(1) There is a group of six persons A, B, C, D, E and F in a family. They are Psychologist, Manager, Lawyer, Jeweller, Doctor and Engineer.
(2) The doctor is the grandfather of F, who is a Psychologist.
(3) The Manager D is married to A.
(4) C, the Jeweller, is married to the Lawyer.
(5) B is the mother of F and E.
(6) There are two married couples in the family.
(7) The Psychologist is a female while Engineer is a male.
37. What is the profession of E ?
(A) Doctor
(B) Engineer
(C) Manager
(D) Psychologist
Ans : (B)
38. How is A related to E ?
(A) Brother
(B) Uncle
(C) Father
(D) Grandfather
Ans : (D)
39. How many male numbers are there in the family ?
(A) One
(B) Three
(C) Four
(D) Two
Ans : (B)
40. What is the profession of A ?
(A) Doctor
(B) Lawyer
(C) Jeweller
(D) Manager
Ans : (A)
41. Which of the following is one of the pairs of couples in the family ?
(A) AB
(B) AC
(C) AD
(D) AE
Ans : (C)
42. Three of the following four are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
(A) Papaya
(B) Mango
(C) Jackfruit
(D) Watermelon
Ans : (C)
43. Three of the following four are similar in relation to their positions in the English alphabet and hence form a group. Which one does not belong to that group ?
(A) SPEAK : PZVKH
(B) HUSKY : BPGFS
(C) BRAIN : MRZIY
(D) BREAK : PZVIY
Ans : (B)
44. Three of the following four groups of letters are alike in some way while one is different. Find out which one is different ?
(A) DJWR
(B) EKXR
(C) KQDX
(D) AGTN
Ans : (A)
45. Four groups of letters are given below. Three of them are alike in a certain way while one is different. Choose the odd one.
(A) GWOURV
(B) LZKMSU
(C) SFXPMG
(D) JOEHNP
Ans : (C)
46. Four pairs of words are given below out of which the words in all pairs except one, bear a certain common relationship. Choose the pair in which the words are differently related.
(A) Watt : Power
(B) Ampere : Current
(C) Pascal : Pressure
(D) Radian : Degree
Ans : (D)
47. Number of letters skipped in between adjacent letters of the series starting from behind are increased by one. Which of the following series observes this rule ?
(A) ONLKI
(B) OMKIG
(C) OMJFA
(D) OIGDC
Ans : (C)
48. If the letters of the word ‘PROTECTION’ which are at odd numbered position in the English alphabet are picked up and are arranged in alphabetical order from left and if they are now substituted by Z, Y, X and so on, beginning from left which letter will get substituted by X ?
(A) E
(B) O
(C) T
(D) I
Ans : (D)
49. How many pairs of letters are there in the word OPERATION in which the difference between them is the same as in the English alphabet ?
(A) 3
(B) 5
(C) 7
(D) 9
Ans : (C)
50. Arrange the given words in order in which they occur in the dictionary and then choose the correct sequence.
(1) Dissipate
(2) Dissuade
(3) Disseminate
(4) Distract
(5) Dissociate
(6) Dissect
(A) 6, 3, 1, 5, 2, 4
(B) 1, 6, 3, 2, 4, 5
(C) 3, 6, 1, 2, 5, 4
(D) 4, 6, 3, 1, 5, 2
Ans : (A)
51. The letters skipped in between the adjacent letters in the series are followed by equal space. Which of the following series observes this rule ?
(A) SUXADF
(B) RVZDFG
(C) HKNGSW
(D) RVZDHL
Ans : (D)
Directions—(Q. 52–56) In a certain code, letters of English alphabet are coded as given for some words. The numeric code for each letter is given in bracket under coded form and corresponds to the letter in the word in the same serial order, study the coded forms of the given words and find out the rules for their classification. Applying those rules find out the code for the words given in capital letters in the questions that follow—
Word Codes FormATE (0) (5) (0)
NONE (5) (25) (5) (25)
UNIT (30) (5) (30) (5)
PIN (5) (10) (5)
PAGE (5) (25) (5) (25)
OPEN (30) (5) (30) (5)
ONE (0) (5) (0)
CUT (5) (10) (5)
SEAT (5) (15) (15) (5)
DEEP (5) (20) (20) (5)
52. VINA
(A) (5) (0) (5) (15)
(B) (5) (25) (5) (25)
(C) (5) (30) (5) (30)
(D) (5) (10) (5) (30)
Ans : (B)
53. AGE
(A) (0) (15) (0)
(B) (15) (15) (15)
(C) (0) (10) (10)
(D) (0) (5) (0)
Ans : (D)
54. PEAR
(A) (5) (15) (15) (5)
(B) (5) (25) (5) (25)
(C) (5) (10) (5) (10)
(D) (5) (30) (5) (30)
Ans : (A)
55. TIN
(A) (0) (5) (0)
(B) (5) (0) (5)
(C) (0) (10) (0)
(D) (5) (10) (5)
Ans : (D)
56. UNIT
(A) (5) (30) (5) (30)
(B) (5) (10) (30) (10)
(C) (30) (5) (30) (5)
(D) (15) (10) (10) (15)
Ans : (C)
57. If the first and second digits in the squence 7 9 8 4 5 3 6 7 8 3 4 5 are interchanged, also the third and fourth digits, the fifth and sixth digits and so on which digit would be the sixth counting from your right ?
(A) 5
(B) 6
(C) 7
(D) 8
Ans : (C)
58. The letter I, J, K, L, M, N, O, P, Q, R, S, T in their order are substituted by twelve numbers but not in that oder. 3 is assigned to R. The difference between R and M is 7. The difference between K and M is 2. What number is assigned to K ?
(A) 8
(B) 12
(C) 7
(D) 11
Ans : (B)
59. Below are given six three-character numbers. The characters comprise of digits and letters. The letter stands for one less than its serial order in the English alphabet. What will be the middle character of the 3rd number when the numbers are arranged in the decending order ?
8G6, 3DJ, F4C, 7HB, 4E6, B8I
(A) 7
(B) 8
(C) 6
(D) 4
Ans : (D)
60. Which of the following will be the third digit of the fourth number after the following numbers are arranged in descending order after reversing the positions of the digits within each number ?
645, 869, 458, 347, 981, 792
(A) 4
(B) 6
(C) 8
(D) 9
Ans : (A)
Below are some sample paper for the said exam. Though the level of difficulty may vary in the exam. However, the basis and the pattern will remain the same. As not many exam of Insurance have taken in the past so there no sure pattern, but believe me this question paper will have more or less same set of questions as below. We are also trying to chalk out more sample paper for other different section. They would be uploaded as soon as they are available. All the best and keep practicing. Hard and fast. And o remember that such exams are all about speed but speed should not come at the cost of accuracy.
General and Financial Awareness
(Held on 14-11-2010)
1. The present Cash Reserve Ratio is—
(A) 5%
(B) 5.5%
(C) 6%
(D) 6.5%
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
2. One of the objectives of KYC (Know Your Customer) norms is—
(A) to give boost to bank deposits
(B) to safeguard banks advances
(C) to monitor transactions of suspicious nature
(D) to help income tax authorities to collect income tax
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
3. Contribution to Prime Minister's relief fund enjoys Income Tax benefit up to—
(A) 50% under section 80G
(B) 75% under section 80G
(C) 100% under section 80 G
(D) 100% under section 88
(E) No exemption is available
Ans : (C)
4. Which of the following activities are expected to be performed by the Business correspondents ?
(A) Disbursal of small value credit
(B) Collection of small value deposits
(C) Sale of micro insurance /mutual fund products
(D) All the three above
(E) Only (B) and (C) above
Ans : (E)
5. Tax at source by banks is deducted on interest paid on term deposits in the interest amount in a financial year exceeds—
(A) Rs. 3,000
(B) Rs. 5,000
(C) Rs. 10,000
(D) Rs. 15,000
(E) There is no such provision
Ans : (B)
6. Securitisation and Reconstruction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of security Interest Act relates to—
(A) Sanction of loans
(B) Enhancement of loan limits
(C) Recovery of loans
(D) All the above
(E) None of above
Ans : (C)
7. MSMED Act is applicable to—
(A) Smalls enterprises only
(B) Medium enterprises only
(C) Micro enterprises only
(D) Micro, Small and Medium enterprises
(E) All enterprises irrespective of their size engaged in manufacturing activity
Ans : (D)
8. Money Laundering refers to—
(A) Conversion of assets into cash
(B) Conversion of Money which is illegally obtained
(C) Conversion of cash into gold
(D) Conversion of gold into cash
(E) None of the above
Ans : (B)
9. The Monetary and Credit Policy is reviewed by the RBI after a gap of—
(A) one year
(B) one month
(C) two years
(D) five years
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
10. PPF account is opened for a period of—
(A) 5 years
(B) 10 years
(C) 15 years
(D) 20 years
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
11. Yuan is the currency of—
(A) Japan
(B) China
(C) Indonesia
(D) Myanmar
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
12. National savings certificate matures at the end of—
(A) Six years
(B) Three years
(C) Six and half years
(D) Five years
(E) Five and half years
Ans : (A)
13. Normally Bank accept Fixed Deposits for a maximum period of—
(A) 5 years
(B) 3 years
(C) 10 years
(D) 20 years
(E) Any number of years
Ans : (E)
14. Code of banks commitment to Micro and Small enterprises is prepared by—
(A) RBI
(B) SEBI
(C) FEDAI
(D) BCSBI
(E) Ministry of Small and Medium Enterprises
Ans : (E)
15. Which one of the following is not a salient feature of debit card ?
(A) No bad debts to banks and no suits for recovery
(B) No interest earning for banks
(C) Works like a normal withdrawal
(D) All the above
(E) 45 dayes credit is given to the card holder
Ans : (E)
16. IFRS stands for—
(A) International Financial Reporting standards
(B) Indian Financial Rating Standards
(C) International Financial Rating Standards
(D) All the three above
(E) None of the above
Ans : (A)
17. What is the present Repo Rate ?
(A) 5%
(B) 5•5%
(C) 6%
(D) 6•5%
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
18. There are certain financial instruments whose prices are derived from the price of the underlying currency of interest rate or stocks etc. These are known as—
(A) Derivatives
(B) Securitisation
(C) Leasing
(D) Factoring
(E) Venture Capital Funding
Ans : (A)
19. What is the full form of ASBA ?
(A) Allotment supported by Blocked Amount
(B) Application supported by Blocked Amount
(C) Application supported by Bank Amount
(D) Allotment supported by Bank Account
(E) None of the above
Ans : (B)
20. Reverse Repo is used by RBI to—
(A) Inject liquidity
(B) Absorb liquidity
(C) Increase the liquidity with banking system
(D) Keep the liquidity at one level
(E) None of the above
Ans : (D)
21. Which of the following is not considered as lending under infrastructure sector ?
(A) A Highway project
(B) Construction of Educational Institution
(C) Construction of Hospital
(D) Laying down of petroleum pipelines
(E) None of the above
Ans : (E)
22. KYC guidelines have been framed on the recommendations/as per guidelines of—
(A) Reserve Bank of India
(B) Ministry of Finance
(C) Indian Banks Association
(D) Financial Action Task Force
(E) Ministry of Home affairs
Ans : (A)
23. The term ‘Power of Attorney’ refers to—
(A) Power of a person
(B) An authority to operate a Bank account
(C) An instrument by which a person is empowered to act for another person
(D) All of the above
(E) None of the above
Ans : (C)
24. What is the amount of compensation to be paid per day, as per RBI directives in case of failed ATM transactions ?
(A) Rs. 50
(B) Rs. 100
(C) Rs. 200
(D) Rs. 500
(E) It is at the discretion of each Bank
Ans : (B)
25. Financial Action Task Force has an office in India at which place ?
(A) Mumbai
(B) Chennai
(C) Kolkata
(D) New Delhi
(E) All the above places
Ans : (D)
26. Bridge loans refer to—
(A) Loans granted to contruction companies for construction of bridges
(B) Loan granted to PWD for construction of bridges over Rivers
(C) Interim finance allowed by banks to their customers pending disbursement of term loans by financial institutions
(D) All of the above
(E) None of the above
Ans : (C)
27. Payment of Demand Draft can be stopped by—
(A) Payee
(B) Holder
(C) Purchaser
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
28. Can any one file an appeal against the order passed by the Banking Ombudsman ? If so who is the Appellate Authority ?
(A) The Chairman of concerned Bank
(B) The Deputy Governor RBI
(C) Governor of RBI
(D) Finance Minister
(E) None of the above
Ans : (B)
29. For which one of the following reasons, the Government has approved a plan to infuse Rs. 15,000 crore capital into PSBs ?
(A) To boost their lending capacity
(B) To maintain minimum CRAR as per Basel II norms
(C) To maintain NPA provision coverage ratio
(D) To strengthen the Balance Sheet of banks
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
30. What is monetary policy transmission ?
(A) It refers to monetary policy of Central Bank
(B) It refers to fiscal policy of Government
(C) It refers to various channels through which the monetary policy of a Central Bank alters prices or output in the real economy
(D) It refers to various channels through which the fiscal policy of the Government alters prices or output in the real economy
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
31. On which one of the following issue IMF has supported monetary policy of India ?
(A) Tightening of monetary policy
(B) Stimulus for agriculture sector
(C) Concessions for foreign investment
(D) Introduction of GST
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
32. The advantage of convenience in credit card operations is for—
(A) Customer
(B) Members Establishments
(C) Banks
(D) All the above
(E) None of the above
Ans : (D)
33. Under provisions of which one of the following Acts, CAs/CS have been told to report all suspicious fund trasnfers ?
(A) RBI Act
(B) Banking Regulation Act
(C) Indian Companies Act
(D) Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
34. Bancassurance is—
(A) an insurance scheme to insure bank deposits
(B) an insurance scheme exclusively for the employees of banks
(C) a composite financial service offering both bank and insurance product
(D) a bank deposits scheme exclusively for employees of insurance companies
(E) None of the above
Ans : (C)
35. In the term STRIPS, the first letter ‘S’ denotes—
(A) Separate
(B) Small
(C) Special
(D) Savings
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
36. Which of the following organizations, provide credit history of the borrowers ?
(A) CIBIL
(B) SEBI
(C) RBI
(D) CRISIL
(E) IBA
Ans : (A)
37. Loans/advances to farmers is treated as—
(A) Personal Loans
(B) Priority Sector Loan
(C) Business Loan
(D) Corporate Loan
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
38. Which one of the following Organisations maintains CRR ?
(A) RBI
(B) SEBI
(C) NABARD
(D) IBA
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
39. When the loan is granted for purchase of white goods it is called—
(A) Consumption loan
(B) White goods loan
(C) Consumer durable loan
(D) All the above
(E) None of the above
Ans : (C)
40. Which one of the following is the objective of Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act ?
(A) To provide 100 days employment to people in rural areas
(B) To provide employment to educated youth
(C) To provide employment under KVIC schemes
(D) To create more valuable rural assets
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
41. Structure of Basel II is based on how many pillars ?
(A) Two
(B) Three
(C) Four
(D) Eight
(E) Six
Ans : (B)
42. With which one of the following ‘Channel Financing’ is associated ?
(A) Retail Lending
(B) Corporate Lending
(C) SME Lending
(D) Supply Chain Finance
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
43. Expand the term FRBM—
(A) Financial Responsibility and Business Management
(B) Fiscal Responsibility and Business Management
(C) Financial Responsibility and Budget Management
(D) Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
44. A customer can approach Banking ombudsman if he does not get satisfactory response to his grievance from the bank within how many days ?
(A) 10 days
(B) 20 days
(C) 8 days
(D) 30 days
(E) 60 days
Ans : (D)
45. Which one of the following country is in talks with EU and International Monetary Fund, to exit from debt crisis ?
(A) Spain
(B) Turkey
(C) Portugal
(D) Greece
(E) Finland
Ans : (D)
46. For achieving 8•5 percent GDP growth in fiscal 2010-11, which one of the following should be percent growth in farm sector ?
(A) 2•0
(B) 2•5
(C) 3•0
(D) 4•0
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
47. According to a report submitted by IMF in its World Economic Outlook, which one of the following countries will have highest percent GDP growth rate in 2011 ?
(A) China
(B) India
(C) Brazil
(D) Russia
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
48. Which one of the following has given ‘Aadhaar’ as its new brand name ?
(A) UIDAI
(B) Sports Ministry, GOI
(C) Ministry of Tourism, GOI
(D) NHAI
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
49. Which of the following will help poor to come out of their poverty ?
1. Good Health Service
2. Freedom from illiteracy
3. Optimum Sex Ratio
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 1 and 2
(D) Only 3
(E) All 1, 2 and 3
Ans : (E)
50. Which one of the following is per cent Bank Rate ?
(A) 4.0
(B) 4.5
(C) 5
(D) 3.33
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
*************************************************
Reasoning Ability
(Held on 9-5-2010)
1. If the following numbers are rewritten by interchanging the digits in ten’s place and hundred’s place and then arranging them in the descending order. What will be the second digit of the newly formed fifth number from your right ?
479, 736, 895, 978, 389, 675
(A) 3
(B) 4
(C) 5
(D) 6
Ans : (C)
2. P is 60 m South-East of Q. R is 60 m North-East of Q. Then R is in which direction of P ?
(A) North
(B) North-East
(C) South
(D) South-East
Ans : (A)
Directions—(Q. 3–5) Read the following information for answering the questions that follow—
On a playing ground A, B, C, D and E are standing as described below facing the North.
(i) B is 50 metres to the right of D.
(ii) A is 60 metres to the South of B
(iii) C is 40 metres to the West of D.
(iv) E is 80 metres to the North of A.
3. If a boy walks from C, meets D followed by B, A and then E, how many metres has he walked if he has travelled the straight distance all through ?
(A) 120
(B) 150
(C) 170
(D) 230
Ans : (D)
4. What is the minimum distance (in metre approximately) between C and E ?
(A) 53
(B) 78
(C) 92
(D) 120
Ans : (C)
5. Who is to the South-East of the person who is to the left of D ?
(A) A
(B) B
(C) C
(D) E
Ans : (A)
6. A man was walking in the evening just before the sun set. His wife said that, his shadow fell on his right. If the wife was walking in the opposite direction of the man, then which direction the wife was facing ?
(A) North
(B) West
(C) South
(D) East
Ans : (C)
Directions—(Q. 7–11) In each of the following questions choose the set of numbers from the four alternative sets that is similar to the given set.
7. Given set : (4, 9, 18)
(A) (8, 14, 22)
(B) (10, 15, 25)
(C) (6, 12, 23)
(D) (12, 17, 26)
Ans : (D)
8. Given set : (10, 14, 17)
(A) (4, 11, 14)
(B) (9, 12, 15)
(C) (8, 13, 18)
(D) (6, 9, 12)
Ans : (A)
9. Given set : (7, 27, 55)
(A) (21, 35, 52)
(B) (18, 42, 65)
(C) (16, 40, 72)
(D) (13, 30, 58)
Ans : (C)
10. Given set : (39, 28, 19)
(A) (84, 67, 52)
(B) (52, 25, 17)
(C) (70, 49, 36)
(D) (65, 45, 21)
Ans : (A)
11. Given set : (246, 257, 358)
(A) (233, 343, 345)
(B) (273, 365, 367)
(C) (143, 226, 237)
(D) (145, 235, 325)
Ans : (A)
Directions—(Q. 12–16) Each question contains six or seven statements followed by four sets of combinations of three. Choose the set in which the statements are logically related.
12. (1) All books are having pages.
(2) All kings are having pages.
(3) All kings are books.
(4) Some heavy things are having pages.
(5) Some heavy things are books.
(6) Some books are heavy.
(7) Some heavy things are having pages.
(A) 1, 2, 3
(B) 6, 1, 4
(C) 4, 6, 1
(D) 1, 5, 7
Ans : (D)
13. (1) No athletes are vegetarians.
(2) All cricket players are athletes.
(3) Some athletes play cricket.
(4) Some cricket players are vegetarians.
(5) No cricket player is a vegetarian.
(6) All athletes are vegetarians.
(A) 1, 2, 5
(B) 3, 4, 1
(C) 1, 5, 2
(D) 2, 5, 6
Ans : (A)
14. (1) All grandmothers cook well.
(2) No man is a grandmother.
(3) Some men do not cook well.
(4) All those who cook well are men.
(5) No one who cooks well is a man.
(6) All those who cook well are grandmothers.
(7) Some men are not grandmothers.
(A) 2, 6, 5
(B) 2, 5, 6
(C) 1, 4, 2
(D) 6, 4, 7
Ans : (B)
15. (1) Looting is a crime.
(2) Some crooked people are criminals.
(3) All those involved in looting are criminals.
(4) Some crooked people are involved in looting.
(5) All criminals are looked down in society.
(6) Some crooked people are not criminals.
(A) 1, 4, 6
(B) 3, 6, 2
(C) 1, 2, 6
(D) 3, 4, 2
Ans : (D)
16. (1) Some women are those who are successful in life.
(2) Some men are those who have patience.
(3) No man is a woman.
(4) All those who have patience are successful in life.
(5) Some who are successful in life are men.
(6) Some men are not those are successful in life.
(A) 1, 3, 6
(B) 4, 2, 6
(C) 1, 5, 3
(D) 2, 4, 5
Ans : (B)
Directions—(Q. 17–21) Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered (I) and (II). You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Give answers—
(A) If the data in statement (I) alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement (II) alone are not sufficient to answer the question;
(B) If the data in statement (II) alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement (I) alone are not sufficient to answer the questions;
(C) If the data even in both statements (I) and (II) together are not sufficient to answer the question;
(D) If the data in both statement (I) and (II) together are necessary to answer the question.
17. In which direction is Mahatmaji’s statue facing ?
I. The statue is towards the northern end of the city.
II. The statue’s shadow falls towards East at 5 O’clock in the evening.
Ans : (C)
18. What is the total number of pupils in the final year class ?
I. The number of boys in the final year class is twice as much as the number of girls in that class.
II. The sum of the ages of all the pupils in the class is 399 years and their average age is 19 years.
Ans : (B)
19. Who is the tallest among A, B, C and D ?
I. A is taller than C.
II. B is taller than C and D.
Ans : (C)
20. How many Sundays are there in a particular month of a particular year ?
I. The month begins on Monday.
II. The month ends on Wednesday.
Ans : (D)
21. What is the total number of pages in this book ?
I. I counted 132 pages from the beginning of this book.
II. My wife counted 138 pages starting from the end of the same book.
Ans : (C)
Directions—(Q. 22–26) In each of the questions given below, there is a statement followed by three assumptions numbered I, II and III. An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted. You have to consider the statement and assumptions and then decide, which of the assumption(s) is/are implicit in the statement.
22. Statement : During pre-harvest kharif seasons, the government has decided to release vast quantity of foodgrains from FCI.
Assumptions :I. There may be a shortage of foodgrains in the market during this season.
II. The kharif crop may be able to replenish the stock of FCI.
III. There may be a demand from the farmers to procure kharif crop immediately after harvest.
(A) None is implicit
(B) Only I and II are implicit
(C) Only II and III are implicit
(D) All are implicit
Ans : (D)
23. Statement : To improve the employment situation in India, there is a need to recast the present educational system towards implementation of scientific discoveries in daily life.
Assumptions :I. The students after completing such education may be able to earn their livelihood.
II. This may bring meaning of education in the minds of the youth.
III. The state may earn more revenue as more and more people will engage themselves in self employment.
(A) Only I and II are implicit
(B) Only III is implicit
(C) Only I and III are implicit
(D) None is implicit
Ans : (A)
24. Statement : To increase profit, the oil exporting countries decided to reduce the production of crude by 5 million barrels per day.
Assumptions :I. The price of crude may increase due to less production.
II. The demand of crude may remain same in future.
III. Other countries may continue buying crude from these countries.
(A) All are implicit
(B) Only II and III are implicit
(C) Only I and II are implicit
(D) None is implicit
Ans : (C)
25. Statement : “We do not want you to see our product on newspaper, visit our shop to get a full view.” – an advertisement.
Assumptions :I. People generally decide to purchase any product after seeing the name in the advertisement.
II. Uncommon appeal may attract the customers.
III. People may come to see the product.
(A) All are implicit
(B) None is implicit
(C) Only II and III are implicit
(D) Only I and II are implicit
Ans : (A)
26. Statement : The Reserve Bank of India has directed the banks to refuse fresh loans to major defaulters.
Assumptions :I. The banks may still give loans to the defaulters.
II. The defaulters may repay the earlier loan to get fresh loan.
III. The banks may recover the bad loans through such harsh measures.
(A) All are implicit
(B) None is implicit
(C) Both II and III are implicit
(D) Both I and II are implicit
Ans : (C)
Directions—(Q. 27–31) In questions given below, statements 1 and 2 are followed by conclusions I and II. Taking the statements to be right although they may seem at variance with commonly accepted facts, mark your answers as under—
(A) If only conclusion I follows.
(B) If only conclusion II follows.
(C) If both I and II follows.
(D) Neither I nor II follows.
27. Statements :1. All hands are machines.
2. All machines are wheels.
Conclusions :I. All wheels are hands.
II. All hands are wheels.
Ans : (B)
28. Statements :1. Some buds are leaves.
2. Some leaves are red.
Conclusions :
I. Some buds are red.
II. Some leaves are not buds.
Ans : (B)
29. Statements :
1. Some stones are shells.
2. All shells are pearls.
Conclusions :I. Some stones are pearls.
II. All pearls are shells.
Ans : (A)
30. Statements :1. Brown is red and blue is green.
2. Green is pink and yellow is red.
Conclusions :
I. Yellow is brown.
II. Pink is blue.
Ans : (C)
31. Statements :
1. Merchants who do not own cars do not have bicycles either.
2. Those who do not have bicycles have tricycles.
Conclusions :I. Some merchants have only tricycles.
II. No one has both, the car and the tricycles.
Ans : (D)
Directions—(Q. 32–36) A number arrangement machine, when given a particular input, rearranges it following a particular rule. The following is the illustration of the input and the stages of arrangement.
Input : 245, 316, 436, 519, 868, 710, 689
Step I : 710, 316, 436, 519, 868, 245, 689
Step II : 710, 316, 245, 519, 868, 436, 689
Step III : 710, 316, 245, 436, 868, 519, 689
Step IV : 710, 316, 245, 436, 519, 868, 689
Step IV is the last step of input.
32. If 655, 436, 764, 799, 977, 572, 333 is the input which of the following steps will be ‘333, 436, 572, 655, 977, 764, 799’ ?
(A) II
(B) III
(C) IV
(D) I
Ans : (B)
33. How many steps will be required to get the final output from the following input ?
Input : 544, 653, 325, 688, 461, 231, 857
(A) 5
(B) 4
(C) 3
(D) 6
Ans : (A)
34. For the given input, which of the following will be third step ?
Input : 236, 522, 824, 765, 622, 463, 358
(A) 522, 236, 765, 824, 622, 463, 358
(B) 522, 622, 236, 824, 765, 463, 358
(C) 522, 622, 236, 765, 824, 463, 358
(D) 522, 622, 236, 463, 824, 765, 358
Ans : (C)
35. If following is the second step for an input, what will be the fourth step ?
Step II : 620, 415, 344, 537, 787, 634, 977
(A) 620, 415, 344, 537, 634, 787, 977
(B) 620, 415, 344, 634, 537, 787, 977
(C) 620, 415, 344, 634, 787, 537, 977
(D) Can’t be determined
Ans : (B)
36. Which of the following is the last step for the following input ?
Input : 473, 442, 735, 542, 367, 234, 549
(A) 234, 442, 542, 473, 735, 367, 549
(B) 234, 442, 542, 735, 473, 367, 549
(C) 234, 442, 542, 473, 367, 735, 549
(D) 234, 442, 542, 735, 367, 473, 549
Ans : (A)
Directions—(Q. 37–41) Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below it—
(1) There is a group of six persons A, B, C, D, E and F in a family. They are Psychologist, Manager, Lawyer, Jeweller, Doctor and Engineer.
(2) The doctor is the grandfather of F, who is a Psychologist.
(3) The Manager D is married to A.
(4) C, the Jeweller, is married to the Lawyer.
(5) B is the mother of F and E.
(6) There are two married couples in the family.
(7) The Psychologist is a female while Engineer is a male.
37. What is the profession of E ?
(A) Doctor
(B) Engineer
(C) Manager
(D) Psychologist
Ans : (B)
38. How is A related to E ?
(A) Brother
(B) Uncle
(C) Father
(D) Grandfather
Ans : (D)
39. How many male numbers are there in the family ?
(A) One
(B) Three
(C) Four
(D) Two
Ans : (B)
40. What is the profession of A ?
(A) Doctor
(B) Lawyer
(C) Jeweller
(D) Manager
Ans : (A)
41. Which of the following is one of the pairs of couples in the family ?
(A) AB
(B) AC
(C) AD
(D) AE
Ans : (C)
42. Three of the following four are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
(A) Papaya
(B) Mango
(C) Jackfruit
(D) Watermelon
Ans : (C)
43. Three of the following four are similar in relation to their positions in the English alphabet and hence form a group. Which one does not belong to that group ?
(A) SPEAK : PZVKH
(B) HUSKY : BPGFS
(C) BRAIN : MRZIY
(D) BREAK : PZVIY
Ans : (B)
44. Three of the following four groups of letters are alike in some way while one is different. Find out which one is different ?
(A) DJWR
(B) EKXR
(C) KQDX
(D) AGTN
Ans : (A)
45. Four groups of letters are given below. Three of them are alike in a certain way while one is different. Choose the odd one.
(A) GWOURV
(B) LZKMSU
(C) SFXPMG
(D) JOEHNP
Ans : (C)
46. Four pairs of words are given below out of which the words in all pairs except one, bear a certain common relationship. Choose the pair in which the words are differently related.
(A) Watt : Power
(B) Ampere : Current
(C) Pascal : Pressure
(D) Radian : Degree
Ans : (D)
47. Number of letters skipped in between adjacent letters of the series starting from behind are increased by one. Which of the following series observes this rule ?
(A) ONLKI
(B) OMKIG
(C) OMJFA
(D) OIGDC
Ans : (C)
48. If the letters of the word ‘PROTECTION’ which are at odd numbered position in the English alphabet are picked up and are arranged in alphabetical order from left and if they are now substituted by Z, Y, X and so on, beginning from left which letter will get substituted by X ?
(A) E
(B) O
(C) T
(D) I
Ans : (D)
49. How many pairs of letters are there in the word OPERATION in which the difference between them is the same as in the English alphabet ?
(A) 3
(B) 5
(C) 7
(D) 9
Ans : (C)
50. Arrange the given words in order in which they occur in the dictionary and then choose the correct sequence.
(1) Dissipate
(2) Dissuade
(3) Disseminate
(4) Distract
(5) Dissociate
(6) Dissect
(A) 6, 3, 1, 5, 2, 4
(B) 1, 6, 3, 2, 4, 5
(C) 3, 6, 1, 2, 5, 4
(D) 4, 6, 3, 1, 5, 2
Ans : (A)
51. The letters skipped in between the adjacent letters in the series are followed by equal space. Which of the following series observes this rule ?
(A) SUXADF
(B) RVZDFG
(C) HKNGSW
(D) RVZDHL
Ans : (D)
Directions—(Q. 52–56) In a certain code, letters of English alphabet are coded as given for some words. The numeric code for each letter is given in bracket under coded form and corresponds to the letter in the word in the same serial order, study the coded forms of the given words and find out the rules for their classification. Applying those rules find out the code for the words given in capital letters in the questions that follow—
Word Codes FormATE (0) (5) (0)
NONE (5) (25) (5) (25)
UNIT (30) (5) (30) (5)
PIN (5) (10) (5)
PAGE (5) (25) (5) (25)
OPEN (30) (5) (30) (5)
ONE (0) (5) (0)
CUT (5) (10) (5)
SEAT (5) (15) (15) (5)
DEEP (5) (20) (20) (5)
52. VINA
(A) (5) (0) (5) (15)
(B) (5) (25) (5) (25)
(C) (5) (30) (5) (30)
(D) (5) (10) (5) (30)
Ans : (B)
53. AGE
(A) (0) (15) (0)
(B) (15) (15) (15)
(C) (0) (10) (10)
(D) (0) (5) (0)
Ans : (D)
54. PEAR
(A) (5) (15) (15) (5)
(B) (5) (25) (5) (25)
(C) (5) (10) (5) (10)
(D) (5) (30) (5) (30)
Ans : (A)
55. TIN
(A) (0) (5) (0)
(B) (5) (0) (5)
(C) (0) (10) (0)
(D) (5) (10) (5)
Ans : (D)
56. UNIT
(A) (5) (30) (5) (30)
(B) (5) (10) (30) (10)
(C) (30) (5) (30) (5)
(D) (15) (10) (10) (15)
Ans : (C)
57. If the first and second digits in the squence 7 9 8 4 5 3 6 7 8 3 4 5 are interchanged, also the third and fourth digits, the fifth and sixth digits and so on which digit would be the sixth counting from your right ?
(A) 5
(B) 6
(C) 7
(D) 8
Ans : (C)
58. The letter I, J, K, L, M, N, O, P, Q, R, S, T in their order are substituted by twelve numbers but not in that oder. 3 is assigned to R. The difference between R and M is 7. The difference between K and M is 2. What number is assigned to K ?
(A) 8
(B) 12
(C) 7
(D) 11
Ans : (B)
59. Below are given six three-character numbers. The characters comprise of digits and letters. The letter stands for one less than its serial order in the English alphabet. What will be the middle character of the 3rd number when the numbers are arranged in the decending order ?
8G6, 3DJ, F4C, 7HB, 4E6, B8I
(A) 7
(B) 8
(C) 6
(D) 4
Ans : (D)
60. Which of the following will be the third digit of the fourth number after the following numbers are arranged in descending order after reversing the positions of the digits within each number ?
645, 869, 458, 347, 981, 792
(A) 4
(B) 6
(C) 8
(D) 9
Ans : (A)
********************************************
(Held on 9-5-2010)
1. Which of the following stars lies nearest to our solar system ?
(A) Barnard’s Star
(B) Sirius A
(C) Alpha Centauri A
(D) Proxima Centauri
Ans : (D)
2. Of the total water on the earth, fresh water reserves constitute approximately—
(A) 5•8%
(B) 4•5%
(C) 2•59%
(D) 1•2%
Ans : (C)
3. The term ‘Bishop’ in sports is related to—
(A) Chess
(B) Hockey
(C) Badminton
(D) Bridge
Ans : (A)
4. Yakshagan is the famous dance form of the State of—
(A) Orissa
(B) Andhra Pradesh
(C) Tamil Nadu
(D) Karnataka
Ans : (D)
5. Balance of Payments means—
(A) Difference between export and imports
(B) Balance to be paid to the exporters
(C) Balance to be paid to the industrialists
(D) Balance coming in allocation of funds for States
Ans : (A)
6. A light year is equivalent to about—
(A) 365 days
(B) Six million miles
(C) Six billion miles
(D) Six trillion miles
Ans : (D)
7. Denmark, Iceland, Norway, Sweden and Finland are together called—
(A) Slovakia
(B) Scandinavia
(C) Netherlands
(D) Australasia
Ans : (B)
8. The device used for locating submerged objects under sea is—
(A) Sonar
(B) Radar
(C) Laser
(D) Maser
Ans : (A)
9. Which article of the Constitution provides the Parliament the power to ammend Constitution ?
(A) 376
(B) 370
(C) 368
(D) 390
Ans : (C)
10. What is the name of the first successfully cloned deer ?
(A) Dawn
(B) Deluxe
(C) Demor
(D) Dewey
Ans : (D)
11. The idea of motion pictures was propounded by—
(A) N. R. Finsen
(B) T. A. Edison
(C) J. L. Baird
(D) Berliner
Ans : (B)
12. In Greek mythology, Apollo is the god of which of the following ?
(A) Love
(B) Peace
(C) Prophecy
(D) Medicine
Ans : (C)
13. NASA’s new space telescope is—
(A) Wise
(B) Rise
(C) Barack
(D) Telle
Ans : (A)
14. Bull fighting is the national game of—
(A) Italy
(B) Poland
(C) Spain
(D) Sudan
Ans : (C)
15. In a rare recognition, the Government of Mauritius decides to introduce a book written by Uttarakhand Chief Minister Ramesh Pokhriyal Nishank in the School Syllabus of the island nation, what is the name of the book ?
(A) Sound of Hills
(B) Sparsh Ganga
(C) Heaven
(D) Amrit
Ans : (B)
16. Who has been selected for the ‘Niwano Peace Prize, 2010’ for her contribution to the uplift of poor women in India ?
(A) Ela Bhatt
(B) Jhumpa Lahiri
(C) Punam Suri
(D) Mandakni Apte
Ans : (A)
17. On which of the following dates in 2010 did the safeguard agreement with regard to civilian nuclear facilities between India and the International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) come into force ?
(A) February 28
(B) February 21
(C) February 11
(D) February 4
Ans : (D)
18. The tax which the kings used to collect from the people in the Vedic period was called—
(A) Bali
(B) Vidatha
(C) Varman
(D) Kara
Ans : (B)
19. The cells which are responsible for the production of antibodies are—
(A) Red blood cells
(B) Neutrophils
(C) Lymphocytes
(D) Platelets
Ans : (C)
20. Correct expansion of the term ‘http’ in Internet address is—
(A) Hybrid text transfer protocol
(B) Hyper text transfer protocol
(C) Higher transfer text protocol
(D) Higher text transfer protocol
Ans : (B)
***************************************************
(Held on 6-6-2010)
1. Jawaharlal Nehru National Solar Mission or Solar India has been launched to create an installed capacity of 2000 MW by the end of—
(A) 13th Plan
(B) 14th Plan
(C) 15th Plan
(D) 16th Plan
Ans : (A)
2. Bollywood actors who, on February 2, 2010 rang bells in NASDAQ on Time Square, New York—an honour usually reserved for CEOs of major corporations, are—
(A) Amir Khan and Priyanka Chopra
(B) Shah Rukh Khan and Kajol
(C) Abhishek Bachchan and Aswarya
(D) Saif Ali Khan and Kareena Kapoor
Ans : (B)
3. The term ‘16 yards hit’ is associated with—
(A) Badminton
(B) Baseball
(C) Polo
(D) Hockey
Ans : (D)
4. The vital constituent of blood that helps in clotting is—
(A) Platelets
(B) Haemoglobin
(C) Plasma
(D) Serum
Ans : (A)
5. Which of the following animals can hear ultrasonic sound ?
(A) Cat
(B) Rat
(C) Bat
(D) Squirrel
Ans : (C)
6. The acid rain destroys vegetations because it contains—
(A) Sulphuric acid
(B) Ozone
(C) Carbon monoxide
(D) Nitric acid
Ans : (A)
7. Man Booker Prize winner Ms. Kiran Desai’s novel, ‘The Inheritance of Loss’ deals with—
(A) Telangana movement
(B) Santhal movement
(C) Gorkhaland movement
(D) Bodoland movement
Ans : (C)
8. GARC is the acronym for—
(A) Global Automotive Research Consortium
(B) Global Atomic Research Consortium
(C) Global Automotive Research Centre
(D) Global Advancement Research Centre
Ans : (C)
9. The largest fresh water lake, ‘Lake Superior’ is located in—
(A) Canada
(B) Russia
(C) Tanzania
(D) Argentina
Ans : (A)
10. In which State of India is the largest river island Majuli ?
(A) Assam
(B) Kolkata
(C) Orissa
(D) M.P.
Ans : (A)
11. Match the following—
(a) Berlin, Germany
(b) Ankara, Turkey
(c) Bristol, UK
(d) Budapest, Hungary
1. Danube
2. Kizil
3. Spree
4. Avon
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 2 1 4 3
(B) 4 3 1 2
(C) 1 4 2 3
(D) 3 2 4 1
Ans : (D)
12. Government’s ambitious UID Project has been renamed—
(A) Parichaya
(B) Pahchan
(C) Aadhar
(D) Aanklan
Ans : (C)
13. Who is the author of the book ‘Speaking for Myself’ ?
(A) Salman Rushdie
(B) Cherie Blair
(C) Mohammad Hanif
(D) Hillary Clinton
Ans : (B)
14. The name of India’s first homebuilt stealth warship whose features reduce the probability of being detected at sea is—
(A) Sahyadiri
(B) Satpura
(C) Shivalik
(D) Shivaji
Ans : (C)
15. Which country will host the 17th SAARC summit ?
(A) Bangladesh
(B) Nepal
(C) Shri Lanka
(D) Maldives
Ans : (D)
16. India’s Prime Minister Manmohan Singh is seated at the ……… spot in the leaders’ list of 100 most influential persons of the world realeased by the famous Time Magazine recently.
(A) 15
(B) 19
(C) 23
(D) 27
Ans : (B)
17. The Islam was established in—
(A) 5th A.D.
(B) 7th A.D.
(C) 3rd B.C.
(D) 5th B.C.
Ans : (B)
18. Which part of the human body is highly affected by the nuclear radiation first ?
(A) Bone marrow
(B) Skin
(C) Lungs
(D) Eyes
Ans : (B)
19. Who invented the video-tape ?
(A) Charles Ginsberg
(B) Georges de Mestral
(C) Richard James
(D) P. T. Farnsworth
Ans : (A)
20. Match the following—
(a) NH–1
(b) NH–3
(c) NH–5
(d) NH–7
1. Varanasi–Kanyakumari
2. Kolkata–Chennai
3. New Delhi–Amritsar
4. Agra–Mumbai
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 2 1 4 3
(B) 3 4 2 1
(C) 4 3 1 2
(D) 1 3 4 2
Ans : (B)
******************************************
1. Which of the following is a General Insurance Company functioning in India ?
(A) Life Insurance Corporation of India
(B) ICICI Prudential
(C) Tata AIG
(D) United India Insurance Company
(E) All are General Insurance Companies
Ans : (D)
2. Who amongst the following is the Regulator of Insurance sector in India ?
(A) RBI
(B) AMFI
(C) IRDA
(D) SEBI
(E) All of these
Ans : (C)
3. Which of the following terms is NOT used in insurance sector ?
(A) Indemnity
(B) Coverage
(C) Misuse Alert
(D) Casualty
(E) Annuity
Ans : (C)
4. Which of the following Public Sector companies/organizations provides insurance cover to exporters ?
(A) ECGC
(B) NABARD
(C) SIDBI
(D) IRDA
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
5. The main feature of the National Agricultural Insurance Scheme is to insure which of the following?
(A) Life of the farmer
(B) Crop of the farmer
(C) Animals who are used in agricultural activities
(D) Land of the farmer
(E) Both Land and family of the farmer
Ans : (B)
6. In which one of the following States was the first UID card issued ?
(A) Gujarat
(B) Manipur
(C) Assam
(D) West Bengal
(E) Maharashtra
Ans : (E)
7. Which of the following books is written by Anita Desai ?
(A) Magic Seeds
(B) The Village by the Sea
(C) A Bend in the River
(D) My God Died Young
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
8. Expand the term MGNREGA—
(A) Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act
(B) Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Agency
(C) Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Generation Act
(D) Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Generation Agency
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
9. Which of the following terms is used in the field of finance and banking?
(A) Elasticity
(B) Inflation
(C) Pulse Rate
(D) Hot waves
(E) Plasma
Ans : (B)
10. With which one of the following sports, Saina Nehwal is associated ?
(A) Chess
(B) Badminton
(C) Long Jump
(D) Lawn Tennis
(E) Table Tennis
Ans : (B)
11. Which one of the following States has passed a bill to regulate the interest rates on micro-finance ?
(A) Odisha
(B) Haryana
(C) Karnataka
(D) Kerala
(E) Andhra Pradesh
Ans : (E)
12. Which of the following rates are reviewed by the RBI at the time of periodical review of the policy ?
(a) Bank Rate
(b) Repo Rate
(c) Savings Bank Rate
(A) Only (a)
(B) Only (b)
(C) Both (a) and (b)
(D) All (a), (b) and (c)
(E) Only (c)
Ans : (D)
13. Which one of the following is not included in TAPI gas project ?
(A) Turkmenistan
(B) Pakistan
(C) Afghanistan
(D) India
(E) Iran
Ans : (E)
14. Which one of the following States has passed a legislation to confiscate the property of corrupt officials and to open schools in these properties ?
(A) West Bengal
(B) Jharkhand
(C) Bihar
(D) Rajasthan
(E) Haryana
Ans : (C)
15. Brihadeeswara Temple has recently celebrated its millennium birthday. In which of the following States is it located ?
(A) Karnataka
(B) Andhra Pradesh
(C) Kerala
(D) Odisha
(E) Tamil Nadu
Ans : (E)
16. In which one of the following States, Jaitapur Nuclear Power plant is proposed to be set up ?
(A) Gujarat
(B) Haryana
(C) Odisha
(D) Karnataka
(E) Maharashtra
Ans : (E)
17. According to Planning Commission, in how many years shall the per capita income in India become double ?
(A) Nine
(B) Five
(C) Seven
(D) Three
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
18. Expand the term IFRS.
(A) Indian Financial Reporting Standards
(B) Indian Financial Reporting Systems
(C) International Financial Reporting Standards
(D) International Financial Reporting Systems
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
19. Who is Liu Xiaobo ?
(A) North Korean dissident, who has been awarded Nobel peace prize
(B) Chinese citizen, who has been awarded Nobel peace prize
(C) North Korean dissident, who has been awarded Nobel literature prize
(D) Sportsman who was awarded maximum 8 Gold medals in Commonwealth
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
20. Who is Hardeep Puri ?
(A) India’s permanent representative at UN
(B) Vice President, IMF
(C) Vice President, World Bank
(D) India’s ambassador in USA
(E) India’s ambassador in UK
Ans : (A)
21. With which one of the following games is Ishant Sharma associated ?
(A) Chess
(B) Badminton
(C) Table Tennis
(D) Volley Ball
(E) Cricket
Ans : (E)
22. With which one of the following games, France’s Zinedine Zidane is associated ?
(A) Hockey
(B) Football
(C) Snooker
(D) Volley Ball
(E) Base Ball
Ans : (B)
23. As per recent newspaper reports, which one of the following countries was second largest importer of goods and services in the world during year 2009-10 ?
(A) China
(B) USA
(C) Japan
(D) Russia
(E) India
Ans : (E)
24. According to RBI governor, which one of the following is the challenge in its monetary policy ?
(A) Inflation
(B) Inflation and Supportive recovery
(C) Inflation and fiscal deficit
(D) Inflation and high cost of imports
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
25. Which one of the following Public Sector Organisations has offered largest ever equity offer ?
(A) SAIL
(B) Coal India
(C) Power Grid
(D) Shipping Corporation of India
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
26. Through which one of the following sources domestic funds are raised by Companies ?
(a) IPO only
(b) FPO only
(c) Commercial papers
(A) Only (a) and (b)
(B) All (a), (b) and (c)
(C) Only (a) and (c)
(D) Only (a)
(E) Only (c)
Ans : (C)
27. Which one of the following was the reason owing to which Govt. want Reserve Bank of India to tighten prudential norms for NBFCs ?
(A) To reduce liquidity in the market
(B) It is as per Basel II requirements
(C) It is as per Bank for International Settlement (BIS) directives
(D) It is to protect NBFCs from any impact of possible economic slowdown
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
28. In the financial year 2009-10, which one of the following Banks has made highest Total dividend Payout ?
(A) SBI
(B) PNB
(C) Bank of India
(D) Canara Bank
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
29. In respect of which one of the following countries, India has proposed non payments for import of crude oil ?
(A) Iran
(B) Iraq
(C) Kuwait
(D) Sudan
(E) U.A.E.
Ans : (A)
30. Through which one of the following methods, RBI has allowed Indian companies to hedge exchange rate risks associated with trade transactions ?
(A) Forwards
(B) FRA
(C) Swaps
(D) Currency options
(E) Cross currency options
Ans : (D)
31. Which of the following books is written by V. S. Naipaul ?
(A) A Handful of Dust
(B) A House for Mr. Biswas
(C) A Passage to India
(D) Darkness at Noon
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
32. With which one of the following countries, India has signed agreement to build Multi Model Transit Transport Project ?
(A) Bangladesh
(B) Myanmar
(C) Sri Lanka
(D) Nepal
(E) Maldives
Ans : (B)
33. Which one of the following countries is Number One Country in terms of Purchasing Power ?
(A) USA
(B) Germany
(C) China
(D) South Korea
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
34. Which one of the following directions has been given by Government to Civic bodies ?
(A) They must use 70 per cent of the funds for BPL families
(B) They must use 70 per cent of the funds for the poor living within their jurisdiction
(C) They must use 25 per cent of the funds for BPL families
(D) They must use 25 per cent of the funds for the poor living within their jurisdiction
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
35. On which one of the following issues a group of business leaders and other eminent citizens have expressed concern ?
(A) E-Governance
(B) Governance
(C) Fiscal deficit
(D) Governance deficit
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
36. ‘Yuan’ is the currency of which one of the following countries ?
(A) Japan
(B) South Korea
(C) North Korea
(D) Taiwan
(E) China
Ans : (E)
37. Which one of the following is a leading power in 17 nation Euro Region ?
(A) Germany
(B) France
(C) Norway
(D) Greece
(E) Portugal
Ans : (A)
38. What are teaser loan rates charged by banks ?
(A) Fixed rate of interest charged by banks
(B) Floating rate of interest charged by banks
(C) Rate of interest in the initial period is less and goes up subsequently
(D) Rate of interest in the initial period is more and it goes down subsequently
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
39. Expand the term FSDC which is used in financial sectors ?
(A) Financial Security and Development Council
(B) Financial Stability and Development Council
(C) Fiscal Security and Development Council
(D) Fiscal Stability and Development Council
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
40. According to the 8th Annual Global Retail Development Index (GRDI), which one of the following countries is ‘most attractive’ retail market in the world ?
(A) China
(B) India
(C) UAE
(D) Saudi Arabia
(E) Japan
Ans : (B)
41. Govt.’s ‘Food-for-work’ programme means—
(A) to pay in kind to work and build rural infrastructure
(B) supplying balanced diet to workers in rural areas
(C) no-work-no-pay principle
(D) ensuring enough food to rural worker-households
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
42. The insurance companies collect a fixed amount from its customers at a fixed interval of time. What
is it called ?
(A) Instalment
(B) Contribution
(C) Premium
(D) EMI
(E) Service Charge
Ans : (A)
43. Which of the following is/are the various types of insurance ?
(a) Life Insurance
(b) Health Insurance
(c) Liability Insurance
(A) Only (a)
(B) Only (b)
(C) Only (c)
(D) All (a), (b) and (c)
(E) Only (a) and (b)
Ans : (D)
44. What is the full form of ‘ESOPs’ as seen in financial newspapers ?
(A) Employee Stock Ownership Plan
(B) Executive Salary Options
(C) Emergency Stock Operations
(D) Early Sales Opportunities
(E) Executive Stock Ownership
Ans : (A)
45. Who are considered Super Senior Citizen as per budget 2011-12 ? Those who have completed a minimum age of—
(A) 65 years
(B) 70 years
(C) 75 years
(D) 80 years
(E) 90 years
Ans : (D)
46. Pohang Steel Company (POSCO) is a company originally based in—
(A) China
(B) Vietnam
(C) USA
(D) Italy
(E) South Korea
Ans : (E)
47. As per the revised data released by the Central Statistical Organisation, the GDP growth in 2010 has been at which of the following levels ?
(A) 6%
(B) 6•5%
(C) 8%
(D) 7•5%
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
48. Who amongst the following was awarded Padma Vibhushan recently (2011) ?
(A) Kumar Mangalam Birla
(B) Harbhajan Singh
(C) Nirupama Rao
(D) Montek Singh Ahluwalia
(E) Saina Nehwal
Ans : (D)
49. Annual meeting of World Economic Forum was organized in January 2011 in which of the following cities ?
(A) Davos
(B) Milan
(C) Tokyo
(D) London
(E) Lisbon
Ans : (A)
50. India recently signed a deal on the sharing of Teesta and Feni river waters. This agreement is signed with which of the following countries ?
(A) Nepal
(B) China
(C) Pakistan
(D) Bangladesh
(E) Bhutan
Ans : (D)
*************************************************
1. What is Siam now known as ?
(A) Laos
(B) Thailand
(C) Vietnam
(D) Cambodia
Ans : (B)
2. The correct group of cities, through which National Highway No. 8 passes is—
(A) Bikaner, Ajmer, Kota
(B) Jodhpur, Jaipur, Bikaner
(C) Jaipur, Udaipur, Ahmedabad
(D) Jaipur, Pune, Udaipur
Ans : (C)
3. Through its power of judicial review, the Supreme Court ensures—
(A) Judicial Supremacy
(B) A democrtic government in the country
(C) A constitutional government in the country
(D) That Parliament Sovereignty is curbed
Ans : (D)
4. Which unit of valuation is known as ‘Paper Gold’ ?
(A) Petrodollar
(B) SDR
(C) Eurodollar
(D) GDR
Ans : (B)
5. What is the playing time of the full version of the Indian National Anthem ?
(A) 47 seconds
(B) 50 seconds
(C) 52 seconds
(D) 60 seconds
Ans : (C)
6. When was Barack Obama sworn in as the 44th President of U.S.A. ?
(A) January 15, 2009
(B) January 20, 2009
(C) January 25, 2009
(D) January 30, 2009
Ans : (B)
7. The Movie ‘Slumdog Millionaire’ is based on a novel ‘Q and A’ written by an Indian—
(A) Khuswant Singh
(B) Khalid Mohammad
(C) Sabarjit Singh
(D) Vikas Swarup
Ans : (D)
8. Who has been appointed the first Director-General of the ‘National Investigation Agency (NIA)’ ?
(A) P. S. Sharma
(B) A. Gopalswami
(C) Radha Vinod Raju
(D) K. C. Verma
Ans : (C)
9. Under which Article of the Indian Constitution, can the President of India withhold his assent to a Bill passed by both the houses of Parliament ?
(A) Article, 100
(B) Article, 111
(C) Article, 200
(D) Article, 222
Ans : (B)
10. Which language is spoken by the people of Tripura ?
(A) Bengali
(B) Telugu
(C) Assamese
(D) Malayalam
Ans : (A)
11. Surya Shekhar Ganguly is a player of—
(A) Chess
(B) Cricket
(C) Golf
(D) Hockey
Ans : (A)
12. We very frequently read about Special Economic Zones (SEZs) in newspapers. These SEZs were established with which of the following objectives ?
1. To protect domestic market from direct competition from multinationals
2. To provide more capital to agricultural and allied activities
3. To attract foreign investment directly
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) 1, 2 and 3 all
Ans : (C)
13. With which is ‘Uro Cup’ associated ?
(A) Cricket
(B) Football
(C) Polo
(D) Wrestling
Ans : (B)
14. World Environment Day is on—
(A) June, 5
(B) June, 11
(C) June, 17
(D) June, 30
Ans : (A)
15. Which rock-shelter in India bears largest number of paintings ?
(A) Adamgarh
(B) Bhimbetka
(C) Ghagharia
(D) Lekhia
Ans : (B)
16. Heat received by earth from the sun is known as—
(A) Isolation
(B) Solar heat
(C) Solar radiation
(D) Thermal radiation
Ans : (A)
17. Who invented Coronograph which allowed the study of the sun without waiting for a total solar eclipse ?
(A) Donald Menzel
(B) Pierre Jenseen
(C) John Evershed
(D) Bernard Lyot
Ans : (D)
18. Who wrote ‘The Structure of the Universe’, giving in detail the origin of the universe and its present status, among other things ?
(A) Robert Jastrow
(B) S. Chandrashekhar
(C) Jayant V. Narlikar
(D) Carl Sagan
Ans : (C)
19. Name the Sri Lankan town which has been the Tamil Tiger’s administrative and political headquarters and has been captured by the army recently ?
(A) Kandy
(B) Jaffana
(C) Kilinochchi
(D) Mullaithivu
Ans : (C)
20. Which committee recommended abolition of tax rebates under Section, 88 ?
(A) Kelkar Committee
(B) Rangarajan Committee
(C) Chelliah Committee
(D) Shome Committee
Ans : (D)
*******************************
Reasoning Ability
Directions—(Q. 1—5) In the following questions, the symbols +, -,x
÷ and = are used with the following meanings
A + B means A is greater than B;
A – B means A is greater than or equal to B;
A x B means A is equal to B;
A ÷ B means A is smaller than B; and
A = B means A is smaller than or equal to B.
For each question you have to assume given statements to be true and then decide which of the two given conclusions is are definitely true. Give answer
(A) If only conclusion I is true;
(B) If only conclusion II is true;
(C) If either conclusion I or conclusion II is true; and
(D) If neither conclusion I nor conclusion II is true.
1. Statements:
D=S, N + V, D x R, R + V
Conclusions: I. S + V
II D+N
2. Statements:
K x P, M + J, C÷ P, K = M
Conclusions: I. M + P
II. M x P
3. Statements:
L – R, N x M, L ÷ M, N = P
Conclusions: I. M + R
II. R+P
4.Statements:
W + K, S = Z, X – W, S x K
Conclusions: I. K x Z
II. X÷K
5. Statements:
P ÷ Q, W – N, P — N, T + W
Conclusions: I. P x W
II. Q÷W
Directions—(Q. 6—10) There are two or three statements followed by four conclusions numbered I, II , III and IV. Take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) .
6. Statements:
Some songs are throngs.
Some throngs are longs.
Conclusions:
I. Some songs are longs.
II. No songs are longs.
III. Only longs are songs.
IV Only songs are longs.
(A) Only I Follows
(B) Only III follows
(C) Either I or II follows
(D) Either III or IV follows
7. Statements:
Some charts are darts.
All darts are carts.
Some carts are smarts.
Conclusions:
I. Some charts are carts.
II. Some carts are darts.
Ill. Some darts are smarts.
IV. Some smarts are charts.
(A) Only I and II follow
(B) Only I and III follow
(C) Only II and III follow
(D) Only I, III and IV follow
8. Statements:
All blanks are beams.
All bridges are beams.
All bridges are cows.
Conclusions:
I. Some cows are beams.
II. Some blanks are cows.
III. Some blanks are bridges.
IV. Some bridges are not cows.
(A) Only I follows
(B) Only II follows
(C) I,II and III follow
(D) None follow
9. Statements:
Some Chinese are not Russians.
All Russians are Africans.
Some Africans are Indians.
Conclusions:
I. Some Chinese are not Africans.
II. Some Chinese are not Indians.
Ill. All Russians are Indians.
IV. Some Indians are Chinese.
(A) Only II follows
(B) Only III follows
(C) Only IV follows
(D) Either II or IV follows
10. Statements:
All chalks are cheese.
No cheese are ships.
Some herds are ships.
Conclusions:
I. Some herds are not chalks.
II. Some herds are cheese.
Ill. Some cheese are not herds.
IV. No chalk is a ship.
(A) I, II and IV follow
(B) Either II or III and IV follows
(C) II and III follow
(D) II and IV follow
Directions—(Q. 11—15) A word arrangement machine, when given a particular input, rearranges it following a particular logic. The following is the illustration of the input and the steps of arrangement?
Input: CRI END YAM STU THE
StepI:YAM THE CRI END STE
StepII:YAM THE STE END CRI
Step III:STU CRI YAM THE END
Step IV;STU CRI END THE YAM
Study the logic and answer questions
11. If step VII of an input is ‘OVER THE PRE NEW BONE’ what is
the step IV of that input?
(A) BONE THE PRE OVERNEW
(B) THE PRE BONE NEW OVER
(C) THE BONE PRE OVER NEW
(D) PRE BONE THE OVER NEW
12. Given the following input— SYM REACH LAD PHOTO CAL
what step will the following arrangement?
REACH LAD PHOTO SYM CAL
(A) VI
(B) V
(C) IV
(D) III
13. If Step VI of a given input be ‘MAP IND PAK RUS ENG’, what would be the input?
(A) IND MAP PAK RUS ENG
(B) IND MAP ENG RUS PAK
(C) ENG RUS IND PAK MAP
(D) RUS MAP IND ENG PAK
14. Given the following input, what would be Step VIII of the input?
Input : BANK CRIS ATTRACT WITH PRIZE
(A) PRIZE WITH CRIS ATTRACT BANK
(B) CRIS BANK PRIZE WITH ATTRACT
(C) PRIZE WITH BANK ATTRACT CRIS
(D) CR15 BANK ATTRACT WITH PRIZE
15. In which step will we get the same arrangement as the input?
(A) VIII
(B) IX
(C)X
(D)XI
Directions—(Q. 16—20) In each question below is given a statement followed by three assumptions numbered I II and III. You have to consider the statement and the assumption, and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement.
Then decide which one of the answers, (A), (B), (C) and (D) is correct.
16. Statement : Considering the tickets sold during the last seven days, the circus authorities decided to continue the show for another fortnight which includes two weekends.
Assumptions:
I. People may not turn up on weekdays.
II. The average number of people who will be visiting circus will be more or less the same as that of the last seven days.
III. There may not be enough responses at other places.
(A) None is implicit
(B) Only II is implicit
(C) Both I and II are implicit
(D) Only III is implicit
17. Statement : The telephone company informed the subscribers through a notification that those who do not pay their bills by the due date will be charged penalty for every defaulting day.
Assumptions:
I. Majority of the people may pay their bills by the due date to avoid penalty.
II. The money collected as penalty may set off the losses due to delayed payment.
III. People generally pay heed to such notices.
(A) Only I and II are implicit
(B) Only II and III are implicit
(C) Only I and III are implicit
(D) All are implicit
18. Statement The national air carrier has decided to start a weekly air service from town ‘A’ to town ‘B’.
Assumptions:
I. There will be enough passengers to make the operation economically viable.
II. Other carriers may not start such service.
III The people staying around these towns can afford the cost of air travel.
(A) Only I is implicit
(B) Both II and III are implicit
(C) Both I and II are implicit
(D) ALL are implicit
19. Statement : A group of friends decided to go for a picnic to Dum Duma Lake during the next holiday season to avoid crowd of people.
Assumptions:
I. Generally many people do not go to Dum Duma Lake.
II. People prefer other spots to Dum Duma Lake.
III. Many people do not know about Dum Duma Lake.
(A) Only I is implicit
(B) Only II is implicit
(C) Only I and II are implicit
(D) All are implicit
20. Statement : “Wanted a two bedroom flat in the court area for immediate possession”—Advertisement.
Assumptions:
I. Flats are available in court
II. Some people will respond to the advertisement.
Ill. It is a practice to give such an advertisement.
(A) Only I and II are implicit
(B) Only II is implicit
(C) Only III is implicit
(D) All are implicit
21. pq—rqp—qrrq—p—rrqpp—r
(A) rqpqr
(B) qprrq
(C) qrprp
(D) rppqq
22. nnt—qqn—tt—qnn—tq-.
(A) nnqtq
(B) qntnq
(C) tnqtq
(D) ttqtq
Directions(Q. 23 and 24)
P + Q means P is the brother of Q
P – Q means P is the sister of Q
P x Q means P is the father of Q
P ÷ Q means P is the mother of
Q.
23. A÷B-C x D,
then A is D
(A) Sister
(B) Aunt
(C) Mother
(D) Grandmother
24. Which of the following shows that V is the grandmother of Y?
(A) VxR+KVY
(B) V÷RxK-Y
(C) V÷R+KxY
(D) VxR-K÷Y
25. How many pairs of letters are there in the word STRAIGHT FORWARD which have numbers of letters between them in the word equal to the number of letters between them in English alphabet?
(A)4
(B)5
(C)6
(D)7
26. Milk: Butter
(A) Banana : Fruit
(B) Juice : Health
(C) Wood: Paper
(D) Chili Spices
27. Hat : Headwear
(A) Shark : Fish
(B) Crocodile : Terrapin
(C) Shoe : Socks
(D) Glove: Hand
28. Horse : Cow
(A) Milk: Ice-cream
(B) Mars : Moon
(C) Snow : Water
(D) Pink: Blue
29. Hair : Head
(A) Teeth : Mouth
(B) Tea-leaves : Mountain slopes
(C) Hand: Arm
(D) Footpath : Road
30. Fore: Hind
(A) Sky:Space
(B) Land:Sea
(C) North : South
(D) Face:Neck
Directions—(Q. 31—35) Read the following information to answer the questions— A, B, C, D and E are sons of P, Q ,R, S and T but not in the same order.
Match the right mother and son on the basis of the information given below—
Q is not B’s or C mother.
A’s or Es mother is not T.
C is not R’s son.
E is not Q’s or S’s son and his mother’s name does not start with the letter ‘R’.
A’s mother is not Q or R
31. Who is S’s son?
(A)A
(B)B
(C)C
(D)D
32. Who is C mother?
(A)P
(B)R
(C)S
(D)T
33. Who is Q’s son?
(A)A
(B)D
(C)B
(D)E
34. Who is P’s son?
(A)B
(B)C
(C)D
(D)E
35. Who is son of R ?
(A)E
(B)A
(C)B
(D)D
Lflrections—(Q. 36-40) In each of the following number series, two terms are put within brackets. Mark in the answer-sheet—
(A) If both the bracketed terms are right;
(B) If the first bracketed term is right and second is wrong;
(C) If the first bracketed term is wrong and second is right;
(D) If both the bracketed terms are wrong.
36. 5, 17, (30), 73, 129, (225)
37. 11, 29, (55), 89, (131), 181
38. 3, 12, 28, 32, (42), (57), 61, 70, 86
39. 2,3,6, (11), 18, (27), 38
40. 4, 14, (18), (24), 31, 36, 38, 48, 53
Directions—(Q. 41-45 )Choose the odd one.
41.
(A) YNHIA
(B) SGRFI
(C) ISEPU
(D) FHUJU
42.
(A) PROUD
(B) DRIVER
(C) WHEAT
(D) TRAIN
43.
(A) CXHIA
(B) RCFCL
(C) MTOWF
(D) CPRSV
44.
(A) JOT
(B) OUT
(C) TEN
(D)DIN
45. (A) HR
(B) GT
(C) KP
(D) FU
Directions—(Q. 46-49) Read the following information and answer the questions given below it. If ranks of five candidates P, Q ,R S and T are arranged in ascending order of their marks in Numerical Ability, T is the fourth and S is the first. When they are arranged in the ascending order of marks in General Awareness, P takes the place of T and T takes the place of Q. R’s position remains the same in both the arrangements. Q’s marks are lowest in one test and highest in the other test. P has more marks than R in Numerical Ability.
46. Who has secured the highest marks in General Awareness?
(A)Q
(B)T
(C)S
(D)R
47. Who has secured the highest marks in Numerical Ability?
(A)S
(B)R
(C)P
(D)Q
48. Which of the following groups of candidates has improvement in rank in General Awareness as compared to that in Numerical Ability?
(A) SPT
(B) PSR
(C) QST
(D) SPQ
49. Whose marks in General Awareness are more than R’s marks in General Awareness?
(A) Only P’s
(B)P’s, Q’s and S’s
(C) P’s, S’s and T’s
(D) P’s, Q’s and T’s
50. In a certain code CAMEL is written as XPOGT and RABBITS as YPUULFZ. How can AIRMAIL be written in that code?
(A) PIYOPLT
(B) PLYOPTL
(C) PLROPLT
(D) PLYOPLT
Answers:
| 1 | A |
| 2 | C |
| 3 | A |
| 4 | B |
| 5 | D |
| 6 | C |
| 7 | A |
| 8 | D |
| 9 | D |
| 10 | B |
| 11 | C |
| 12 | B |
| 13 | D |
| 14 | C |
| 15 | C |
| 16 | B |
| 17 | D |
| 18 | C |
| 19 | D |
| 20 | A |
| 21 | D |
| 22 | C |
| 23 | D |
| 24 | B |
| 25 | C |
| 26 | C |
| 27 | D |
| 28 | B |
| 29 | A |
| 30 | C |
| 31 | A |
| 32 | D |
| 33 | B |
| 34 | D |
| 35 | C |
| 36 | C |
| 37 | A |
| 38 | C |
| 39 | A |
| 40 | D |
| 41 | D |
| 42 | B |
| 43 | C |
| 44 | B |
| 45 | A |
| 46 | B |
| 47 | D |
| 48 | A |
| 49 | C |
| 50 | D |
******************************************
1. Which of the following is not the
name of an Insurance Scheme
launched by the Government of
India
(A) ]anashree Bima Yojana
(B) Krishi Shramik Sarnajik
Suraksha Yojana
(C) Shiksha Sahyog Yojana
(D) Varsha Bima Yojana
(E) National Saving Scheme
Programme
Answer.D
2. Which of the following insurance
companies writes its punch
line in the advertisements
”Insurance is the subject matter
of solicitation” ?
(A) CIC
(B) LIC
(C) ING Vysya Life Insurance
Co.
(D) Tata AIG Life Insurance Co.
(E) None of these
Answer.B
3. How much Foreign Institutional
Investment is allowed in
insurance sector at present
(A) 20%
(B) 46%
(C) 59%
(D) 63%
(E) None of these
Answer.E
4. How many public sector companies in India are in Insurance
Business
(A) Only one
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four
(E) More than ten
Answer.A
5. Which of the following was the
parent company of New India
Assurance ?
(A) LIC
(B) GIC
(C) Oriental Insurance Co. Ltd.
(D) United India Insurance
(E) None of these
Answer.B
6. Which of the following organizations of the workers of unorganized sector has adopted an insurance scheme for all its workers and has become a model organization for the workers of the unorganized sector ?
(A) SERC
(B) SEWA
(C) VSNL
(D) SEBI
(E) MTNL
Answer.B
7. Which of the following projects
of the ISRO was recently insured
by the New India Assurance
Company ?
(A) MATSAT-II
(B) Aryabhatt
(C) PSLV
(D) Chandrayaan
(E) lNSAT—2E
Answer.C
8. Which of t.he following industrial
groups of India is Not in any
type of Insurance Business in
India 7
(A) Tatas
(B) Birlas
(C)‘ Iaipurias
(D) Mahindras
(E) All are in Insurance Business
Answer.C
9. Which of the following words/
terms is closely associated with
the insurance business
(A) Archives
(B) Donation
(C) Actuary
(D) Quest
(E) All are associated with
insurance
Answer.C
10. Which of the following is the
abbreviated name of the agency /
organization which is the regulator of insurance business in
India ?
(A) NHB
(B) IRDA
(C) IBA
(D) IDFC
(E) ICRISAT
Answer.B
ll. Insurance services are normally
not provided for which of the
following?
(A) Health
(B) Life
(C) jobs
(D) House & Property
(E) It is available for all
Answer.C
12. The New India Assurance Company was established in 1919
by
(A) Dorab Tata
(B) G. D. Birla
(C) Iamunalal Baja]
(D) Kamlapat Singhania
(E) None of these
Answer.A
13. Which of the following is largest
Non Life Insurance Company in
India ?
(A) ICICI Lombard General
Insurance Company Ltd.
(B) United India Insurance
Company Ltd.
(C) General Insurance Company
Ltd.
(D). New India Assurance Company Ltd.
(E) None of these
Answer.D
14. Ramesh Pokhriyal has taken over
as the new-
(A) Chief Minister of Chhattis-
garh
(B) Chief Minister of Uttara-
khand
(C) Governor of Haryana
(D) Governor of Uttarakhand
(E) Governor of Chhattisgarh
Answer.B
15. As per the announcement made
by the Govt. of India, which of
the following organizations is
set up by it for a very specific
purpose of providing a personal
identity card to all its citizens ?
(A) National Remote Sensing
Agency
(B) Unique Identification
Authority of India (UIA)
(C) National Spot Exchange
(D) Trade Development Authority
(E) People’s Union for Civil
Liberties
Answer.B
16. Which of the following Insurance
Companies was launched with
NABARD as one of its promoter”s with 30% stake in it ?
(A) General Insurance Corpora-
tion Ltd.
(B) National Insurance Corn-
pany Ltd.
(C) Agriculture Insurance Com-
pany Ltd,
(D) SBI Life Insurance Company
Ltd.
(E) None of these
Answer.A
17. Who amongst the following is
new Foreign Secretary of India 7
(A) Nirupama Rao
(B) Goolarn E. Vahanvati
(C) Brindeshwar Pathak
(D) Naveen Chawla
(E) None of these
v
Answer.A
18. Which of the following correctly
describes what the ’Bancass-
urance’ is
1. It is an arrangement where-
by the branches of a bank
sell / distribute insurance
products of an insurance
company.
2. It is a new product devel-
oped/ launched by the banks
in which the risks of the
high value customers are
covered for any losses to
their property and/or lives
through an insurance cover.
3, It is a new product launched
by some banks by which
they are providing insurance
cover to exporters/ impor-
ters for the losses, if any due
to high fluctuations in the
exchange rates of dollars
and other major currencies.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) None of these
Answer.A
19, Which of the following is the
abbreviated name of the organizations which provides credit
guarantee to exporters ?
(A) FICCI
(B) NABARD
(C) SIDBI
(D) ECGC
(E) SEBI
Answer.D
20. The Railway Budget 2009-10 was
presented in the Lok Sabha (in
Iuly 2009) by
(A) Lalu Prasad Yadav
(B) Kapil Sibal
(C) P. Chidambaram
(D) Mamata Banerjee
(E) Pranab Mukherjee
Answer.D
21. ‘Satyam’ the well known company which has been i.n the news
in recent past, is now known
with its new name as—
(A) Mahindra Satyarn
(B) Birla Satyam
(C) Reliance Satyam
(D) Tata Satyam
(E) None of these
Answer.A
22. The Economic Survey which was
presented in the Lok Sabha in
]uly 2009, was the survey for the
year/ period of—
(A) 2007-08
(B) 2008—09
(C) 2009-10
(D) Tenth five year plan
(E) None of these
Answer.B
23. The Government of India has
recently decided to allow about
2,200 items to come to Indian
markets with a tag of ‘Duty Free
Items} These items are imported
from
(A) China
(B) Singapore
(C) Sri Lanka
(D) Nepal
(E) Pakistan
Answer.B
24. Who amongst the following is
not one of the HFA Award
winners of 2009 ? (Under any one
of the categories).
(A) Priyanka Chopra
(B) Asin
(C) Farhan Akhtar
(D) Karishma Kapoor
(E) Hrithik Roshan
Answer.D
25. Saina Nehwal is a famous—
(A) Badminton player
(B) Table Tennis Player
(C) Lawn Tennis Player •
(D) Hockey Player
(E) Chess Player
Answer.A
26. ’No Tobacco Day’ is observed
every year on——
(A) lst May
(B) lst ]une
(C) 31st May
(D) 30th june
(E) None of these
Answer.C
27, India has recently appointed a
new Attorney General. Attorney
Generals are advisers to the
Government of India in-
(A) Defence related matters
(B) Diplomatic matters
(C) Legal matters
(D) Financial matters
(E) None of these
Answer.C
28. The presidential election in
which of the following countries,
held in ]une 2009, created a con•
troversy as one of the candidates
who was declared defeated
refused to accept the results of
the same ?
(A) Iran
(B) Pakistan
(C) Nepal
(D) Sri Lanka
(E) USA
Answer.A
29. Which of the following awards is
given for excellence in the field
of Literature 7
(A) N. Borlaug Award
(B) Kalinga Prize
(C) Kishor Kumar Award
(D) Saraswati Samman
(E) Dronacharya Award
Answer.D
30. The parliamentarian elections of
which of die following organizations were held in june 2009 ?
(A) European Union (EU)
(B) Oil & Petroleum Exporting
Countries (OPEC)
(C) Shanghai Corporation
(D) South Asian Association for
Regional Cooperation (SAARC)
(E) None of these
Answer.A
31. The 79th Amendment to the
Indian Constitution done in 1999
was associated with the»-
(A) reservation of seats in the
Parliament and State Assemblies
for sC/ ST candidates
(B) creation of three new states
Chhattisgarh, Uttarakhand and
jharkhand
(C) land reforms in many states
(D) giving more powers to
Panchayats
(E) None of these
Answer.A
32. Which of the following books is
written by Arundhati Roy ?
(A) The Last Hero
(B) Stolen Harvest
(C) A Himalayan Love Story
(D) Freedom From Fear
(E) God of Small Things
Answer.E
33. Which of the following schemes
was launched recently to make
Indian cities free from slums ?
(A) Bharat Nirrnan
(B) Indira Vikash Yojana
(C) Indira Awas Yojana
(D) Rajiv Awas Yojana
(E) None of these
Answer.D
34. Admiral Gorshkov Aircraft
carrier Refit Project is a deal
between India and-
(A) China
(B) South Korea
(C) Russia
(D) Iran
(E) None of these
Answer.C
35. The sex ratio in India is higher in
which of the following states ?
(Females (1052) are more than
per thousand males)-
(A) Maharashtra
(B) Kerala
(C) Manipur
(D) Assam
(E) Karnataka
Answer.B
36. Which of the following countries
in Not a member of ASEAN ?
(A) Myanmar
(B) Singapore
(C) China
(D) Vietnam
(E) Malaysia
Answer.C
37. Tipaimukh Dam which was in
news recently is located in which
of the following states ?
(A) Nagaland
(B) Meghalaya
(C) Arunachal Pradesh
(D) Manipur
(E) Assam
Answer.D
38. Which of the following states
has highest Literacy Rate in
country ?
(A) Gujarat
(B) Maharashtra
(C) Delhi
(D) Andhra Pradesh
(E) Kerala
Answer.E
39. Which of the following cups/
trophies is closely associated with
the game of Hockey ?
(A) Mardeka Cup
(B) Wimbledon Trophy
(C) Ranji Trophy
(D) Durand Cup
(E) Agha Khan Cup
Answer.E
40. Which of the following diseases
is caused by a virus ?
(A) Plague
(B) Cholera
(C) Whooping cough
(D) Tetanus
(E) Chicken pox
Answer.E
**********************************************
1. If the following numbers are rewritten by interchanging the digits in ten’s place and hundred’s place and then arranging them in the descending order. What will be the second digit of the newly formed fifth number from your right ?
479, 736, 895, 978, 389, 675
(A) 3
(B) 4
(C) 5
(D) 6
Ans : (C)
2. P is 60 m South-East of Q. R is 60 m North-East of Q. Then R is in which direction of P ?
(A) North
(B) North-East
(C) South
(D) South-East
Ans : (A)
Directions—(Q. 3–5) Read the following information for answering the questions that follow—
On a playing ground A, B, C, D and E are standing as described below facing the North.
(i) B is 50 metres to the right of D.
(ii) A is 60 metres to the South of B
(iii) C is 40 metres to the West of D.
(iv) E is 80 metres to the North of A.
3. If a boy walks from C, meets D followed by B, A and then E, how many metres has he walked if he has travelled the straight distance all through ?
(A) 120
(B) 150
(C) 170
(D) 230
Ans : (D)
4. What is the minimum distance (in metre approximately) between C and E ?
(A) 53
(B) 78
(C) 92
(D) 120
Ans : (C)
5. Who is to the South-East of the person who is to the left of D ?
(A) A
(B) B
(C) C
(D) E
Ans : (A)
6. A man was walking in the evening just before the sun set. His wife said that, his shadow fell on his right. If the wife was walking in the opposite direction of the man, then which direction the wife was facing ?
(A) North
(B) West
(C) South
(D) East
Ans : (C)
Directions—(Q. 7–11) In each of the following questions choose the set of numbers from the four alternative sets that is similar to the given set.
7. Given set : (4, 9, 18)
(A) (8, 14, 22)
(B) (10, 15, 25)
(C) (6, 12, 23)
(D) (12, 17, 26)
Ans : (D)
8. Given set : (10, 14, 17)
(A) (4, 11, 14)
(B) (9, 12, 15)
(C) (8, 13, 18)
(D) (6, 9, 12)
Ans : (A)
9. Given set : (7, 27, 55)
(A) (21, 35, 52)
(B) (18, 42, 65)
(C) (16, 40, 72)
(D) (13, 30, 58)
Ans : (C)
10. Given set : (39, 28, 19)
(A) (84, 67, 52)
(B) (52, 25, 17)
(C) (70, 49, 36)
(D) (65, 45, 21)
Ans : (A)
11. Given set : (246, 257, 358)
(A) (233, 343, 345)
(B) (273, 365, 367)
(C) (143, 226, 237)
(D) (145, 235, 325)
Ans : (A)
Directions—(Q. 12–16) Each question contains six or seven statements followed by four sets of combinations of three. Choose the set in which the statements are logically related.
12. (1) All books are having pages.
(2) All kings are having pages.
(3) All kings are books.
(4) Some heavy things are having pages.
(5) Some heavy things are books.
(6) Some books are heavy.
(7) Some heavy things are having pages.
(A) 1, 2, 3
(B) 6, 1, 4
(C) 4, 6, 1
(D) 1, 5, 7
Ans : (D)
13. (1) No athletes are vegetarians.
(2) All cricket players are athletes.
(3) Some athletes play cricket.
(4) Some cricket players are vegetarians.
(5) No cricket player is a vegetarian.
(6) All athletes are vegetarians.
(A) 1, 2, 5
(B) 3, 4, 1
(C) 1, 5, 2
(D) 2, 5, 6
Ans : (A)
14. (1) All grandmothers cook well.
(2) No man is a grandmother.
(3) Some men do not cook well.
(4) All those who cook well are men.
(5) No one who cooks well is a man.
(6) All those who cook well are grandmothers.
(7) Some men are not grandmothers.
(A) 2, 6, 5
(B) 2, 5, 6
(C) 1, 4, 2
(D) 6, 4, 7
Ans : (B)
15. (1) Looting is a crime.
(2) Some crooked people are criminals.
(3) All those involved in looting are criminals.
(4) Some crooked people are involved in looting.
(5) All criminals are looked down in society.
(6) Some crooked people are not criminals.
(A) 1, 4, 6
(B) 3, 6, 2
(C) 1, 2, 6
(D) 3, 4, 2
Ans : (D)
16. (1) Some women are those who are successful in life.
(2) Some men are those who have patience.
(3) No man is a woman.
(4) All those who have patience are successful in life.
(5) Some who are successful in life are men.
(6) Some men are not those are successful in life.
(A) 1, 3, 6
(B) 4, 2, 6
(C) 1, 5, 3
(D) 2, 4, 5
Ans : (B)
Directions—(Q. 17–21) Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered (I) and (II). You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Give answers—
(A) If the data in statement (I) alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement (II) alone are not sufficient to answer the question;
(B) If the data in statement (II) alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement (I) alone are not sufficient to answer the questions;
(C) If the data even in both statements (I) and (II) together are not sufficient to answer the question;
(D) If the data in both statement (I) and (II) together are necessary to answer the question.
17. In which direction is Mahatmaji’s statue facing ?
I. The statue is towards the northern end of the city.
II. The statue’s shadow falls towards East at 5 O’clock in the evening.
Ans : (C)
18. What is the total number of pupils in the final year class ?
I. The number of boys in the final year class is twice as much as the number of girls in that class.
II. The sum of the ages of all the pupils in the class is 399 years and their average age is 19 years.
Ans : (B)
19. Who is the tallest among A, B, C and D ?
I. A is taller than C.
II. B is taller than C and D.
Ans : (C)
20. How many Sundays are there in a particular month of a particular year ?
I. The month begins on Monday.
II. The month ends on Wednesday.
Ans : (D)
21. What is the total number of pages in this book ?
I. I counted 132 pages from the beginning of this book.
II. My wife counted 138 pages starting from the end of the same book.
Ans : (C)
Directions—(Q. 22–26) In each of the questions given below, there is a statement followed by three assumptions numbered I, II and III. An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted. You have to consider the statement and assumptions and then decide, which of the assumption(s) is/are implicit in the statement.
22. Statement : During pre-harvest kharif seasons, the government has decided to release vast quantity of foodgrains from FCI.
Assumptions :I. There may be a shortage of foodgrains in the market during this season.
II. The kharif crop may be able to replenish the stock of FCI.
III. There may be a demand from the farmers to procure kharif crop immediately after harvest.
(A) None is implicit
(B) Only I and II are implicit
(C) Only II and III are implicit
(D) All are implicit
Ans : (D)
23. Statement : To improve the employment situation in India, there is a need to recast the present educational system towards implementation of scientific discoveries in daily life.
Assumptions :I. The students after completing such education may be able to earn their livelihood.
II. This may bring meaning of education in the minds of the youth.
III. The state may earn more revenue as more and more people will engage themselves in self employment.
(A) Only I and II are implicit
(B) Only III is implicit
(C) Only I and III are implicit
(D) None is implicit
Ans : (A)
24. Statement : To increase profit, the oil exporting countries decided to reduce the production of crude by 5 million barrels per day.
Assumptions :I. The price of crude may increase due to less production.
II. The demand of crude may remain same in future.
III. Other countries may continue buying crude from these countries.
(A) All are implicit
(B) Only II and III are implicit
(C) Only I and II are implicit
(D) None is implicit
Ans : (C)
25. Statement : “We do not want you to see our product on newspaper, visit our shop to get a full view.” – an advertisement.
Assumptions :I. People generally decide to purchase any product after seeing the name in the advertisement.
II. Uncommon appeal may attract the customers.
III. People may come to see the product.
(A) All are implicit
(B) None is implicit
(C) Only II and III are implicit
(D) Only I and II are implicit
Ans : (A)
26. Statement : The Reserve Bank of India has directed the banks to refuse fresh loans to major defaulters.
Assumptions :I. The banks may still give loans to the defaulters.
II. The defaulters may repay the earlier loan to get fresh loan.
III. The banks may recover the bad loans through such harsh measures.
(A) All are implicit
(B) None is implicit
(C) Both II and III are implicit
(D) Both I and II are implicit
Ans : (C)
Directions—(Q. 27–31) In questions given below, statements 1 and 2 are followed by conclusions I and II. Taking the statements to be right although they may seem at variance with commonly accepted facts, mark your answers as under—
(A) If only conclusion I follows.
(B) If only conclusion II follows.
(C) If both I and II follows.
(D) Neither I nor II follows.
27. Statements :1. All hands are machines.
2. All machines are wheels.
Conclusions :I. All wheels are hands.
II. All hands are wheels.
Ans : (B)
28. Statements :1. Some buds are leaves.
2. Some leaves are red.
Conclusions :
I. Some buds are red.
II. Some leaves are not buds.
Ans : (B)
29. Statements :
1. Some stones are shells.
2. All shells are pearls.
Conclusions :I. Some stones are pearls.
II. All pearls are shells.
Ans : (A)
30. Statements :1. Brown is red and blue is green.
2. Green is pink and yellow is red.
Conclusions :
I. Yellow is brown.
II. Pink is blue.
Ans : (C)
31. Statements :
1. Merchants who do not own cars do not have bicycles either.
2. Those who do not have bicycles have tricycles.
Conclusions :I. Some merchants have only tricycles.
II. No one has both, the car and the tricycles.
Ans : (D)
Directions—(Q. 32–36) A number arrangement machine, when given a particular input, rearranges it following a particular rule. The following is the illustration of the input and the stages of arrangement.
Input : 245, 316, 436, 519, 868, 710, 689
Step I : 710, 316, 436, 519, 868, 245, 689
Step II : 710, 316, 245, 519, 868, 436, 689
Step III : 710, 316, 245, 436, 868, 519, 689
Step IV : 710, 316, 245, 436, 519, 868, 689
Step IV is the last step of input.
32. If 655, 436, 764, 799, 977, 572, 333 is the input which of the following steps will be ‘333, 436, 572, 655, 977, 764, 799’ ?
(A) II
(B) III
(C) IV
(D) I
Ans : (B)
33. How many steps will be required to get the final output from the following input ?
Input : 544, 653, 325, 688, 461, 231, 857
(A) 5
(B) 4
(C) 3
(D) 6
Ans : (A)
34. For the given input, which of the following will be third step ?
Input : 236, 522, 824, 765, 622, 463, 358
(A) 522, 236, 765, 824, 622, 463, 358
(B) 522, 622, 236, 824, 765, 463, 358
(C) 522, 622, 236, 765, 824, 463, 358
(D) 522, 622, 236, 463, 824, 765, 358
Ans : (C)
35. If following is the second step for an input, what will be the fourth step ?
Step II : 620, 415, 344, 537, 787, 634, 977
(A) 620, 415, 344, 537, 634, 787, 977
(B) 620, 415, 344, 634, 537, 787, 977
(C) 620, 415, 344, 634, 787, 537, 977
(D) Can’t be determined
Ans : (B)
36. Which of the following is the last step for the following input ?
Input : 473, 442, 735, 542, 367, 234, 549
(A) 234, 442, 542, 473, 735, 367, 549
(B) 234, 442, 542, 735, 473, 367, 549
(C) 234, 442, 542, 473, 367, 735, 549
(D) 234, 442, 542, 735, 367, 473, 549
Ans : (A)
Directions—(Q. 37–41) Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below it—
(1) There is a group of six persons A, B, C, D, E and F in a family. They are Psychologist, Manager, Lawyer, Jeweller, Doctor and Engineer.
(2) The doctor is the grandfather of F, who is a Psychologist.
(3) The Manager D is married to A.
(4) C, the Jeweller, is married to the Lawyer.
(5) B is the mother of F and E.
(6) There are two married couples in the family.
(7) The Psychologist is a female while Engineer is a male.
37. What is the profession of E ?
(A) Doctor
(B) Engineer
(C) Manager
(D) Psychologist
Ans : (B)
38. How is A related to E ?
(A) Brother
(B) Uncle
(C) Father
(D) Grandfather
Ans : (D)
39. How many male numbers are there in the family ?
(A) One
(B) Three
(C) Four
(D) Two
Ans : (B)
40. What is the profession of A ?
(A) Doctor
(B) Lawyer
(C) Jeweller
(D) Manager
Ans : (A)
41. Which of the following is one of the pairs of couples in the family ?
(A) AB
(B) AC
(C) AD
(D) AE
Ans : (C)
42. Three of the following four are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
(A) Papaya
(B) Mango
(C) Jackfruit
(D) Watermelon
Ans : (C)
43. Three of the following four are similar in relation to their positions in the English alphabet and hence form a group. Which one does not belong to that group ?
(A) SPEAK : PZVKH
(B) HUSKY : BPGFS
(C) BRAIN : MRZIY
(D) BREAK : PZVIY
Ans : (B)
44. Three of the following four groups of letters are alike in some way while one is different. Find out which one is different ?
(A) DJWR
(B) EKXR
(C) KQDX
(D) AGTN
Ans : (A)
45. Four groups of letters are given below. Three of them are alike in a certain way while one is different. Choose the odd one.
(A) GWOURV
(B) LZKMSU
(C) SFXPMG
(D) JOEHNP
Ans : (C)
46. Four pairs of words are given below out of which the words in all pairs except one, bear a certain common relationship. Choose the pair in which the words are differently related.
(A) Watt : Power
(B) Ampere : Current
(C) Pascal : Pressure
(D) Radian : Degree
Ans : (D)
47. Number of letters skipped in between adjacent letters of the series starting from behind are increased by one. Which of the following series observes this rule ?
(A) ONLKI
(B) OMKIG
(C) OMJFA
(D) OIGDC
Ans : (C)
48. If the letters of the word ‘PROTECTION’ which are at odd numbered position in the English alphabet are picked up and are arranged in alphabetical order from left and if they are now substituted by Z, Y, X and so on, beginning from left which letter will get substituted by X ?
(A) E
(B) O
(C) T
(D) I
Ans : (D)
49. How many pairs of letters are there in the word OPERATION in which the difference between them is the same as in the English alphabet ?
(A) 3
(B) 5
(C) 7
(D) 9
Ans : (C)
50. Arrange the given words in order in which they occur in the dictionary and then choose the correct sequence.
(1) Dissipate
(2) Dissuade
(3) Disseminate
(4) Distract
(5) Dissociate
(6) Dissect
(A) 6, 3, 1, 5, 2, 4
(B) 1, 6, 3, 2, 4, 5
(C) 3, 6, 1, 2, 5, 4
(D) 4, 6, 3, 1, 5, 2
Ans : (A)
51. The letters skipped in between the adjacent letters in the series are followed by equal space. Which of the following series observes this rule ?
(A) SUXADF
(B) RVZDFG
(C) HKNGSW
(D) RVZDHL
Ans : (D)
Directions—(Q. 52–56) In a certain code, letters of English alphabet are coded as given for some words. The numeric code for each letter is given in bracket under coded form and corresponds to the letter in the word in the same serial order, study the coded forms of the given words and find out the rules for their classification. Applying those rules find out the code for the words given in capital letters in the questions that follow—
Word Codes FormATE (0) (5) (0)
NONE (5) (25) (5) (25)
UNIT (30) (5) (30) (5)
PIN (5) (10) (5)
PAGE (5) (25) (5) (25)
OPEN (30) (5) (30) (5)
ONE (0) (5) (0)
CUT (5) (10) (5)
SEAT (5) (15) (15) (5)
DEEP (5) (20) (20) (5)
52. VINA
(A) (5) (0) (5) (15)
(B) (5) (25) (5) (25)
(C) (5) (30) (5) (30)
(D) (5) (10) (5) (30)
Ans : (B)
53. AGE
(A) (0) (15) (0)
(B) (15) (15) (15)
(C) (0) (10) (10)
(D) (0) (5) (0)
Ans : (D)
54. PEAR
(A) (5) (15) (15) (5)
(B) (5) (25) (5) (25)
(C) (5) (10) (5) (10)
(D) (5) (30) (5) (30)
Ans : (A)
55. TIN
(A) (0) (5) (0)
(B) (5) (0) (5)
(C) (0) (10) (0)
(D) (5) (10) (5)
Ans : (D)
56. UNIT
(A) (5) (30) (5) (30)
(B) (5) (10) (30) (10)
(C) (30) (5) (30) (5)
(D) (15) (10) (10) (15)
Ans : (C)
57. If the first and second digits in the squence 7 9 8 4 5 3 6 7 8 3 4 5 are interchanged, also the third and fourth digits, the fifth and sixth digits and so on which digit would be the sixth counting from your right ?
(A) 5
(B) 6
(C) 7
(D) 8
Ans : (C)
58. The letter I, J, K, L, M, N, O, P, Q, R, S, T in their order are substituted by twelve numbers but not in that oder. 3 is assigned to R. The difference between R and M is 7. The difference between K and M is 2. What number is assigned to K ?
(A) 8
(B) 12
(C) 7
(D) 11
Ans : (B)
59. Below are given six three-character numbers. The characters comprise of digits and letters. The letter stands for one less than its serial order in the English alphabet. What will be the middle character of the 3rd number when the numbers are arranged in the decending order ?
8G6, 3DJ, F4C, 7HB, 4E6, B8I
(A) 7
(B) 8
(C) 6
(D) 4
Ans : (D)
60. Which of the following will be the third digit of the fourth number after the following numbers are arranged in descending order after reversing the positions of the digits within each number ?
645, 869, 458, 347, 981, 792
(A) 4
(B) 6
(C) 8
(D) 9
Ans : (A)
*********************************************
1. Which of the following stars lies nearest to our solar system ?
(A) Barnard’s Star
(B) Sirius A
(C) Alpha Centauri A
(D) Proxima Centauri
Ans : (D)
2. Of the total water on the earth, fresh water reserves constitute approximately—
(A) 5•8%
(B) 4•5%
(C) 2•59%
(D) 1•2%
Ans : (C)
3. The term ‘Bishop’ in sports is related to—
(A) Chess
(B) Hockey
(C) Badminton
(D) Bridge
Ans : (A)
4. Yakshagan is the famous dance form of the State of—
(A) Orissa
(B) Andhra Pradesh
(C) Tamil Nadu
(D) Karnataka
Ans : (D)
5. Balance of Payments means—
(A) Difference between export and imports
(B) Balance to be paid to the exporters
(C) Balance to be paid to the industrialists
(D) Balance coming in allocation of funds for States
Ans : (A)
6. A light year is equivalent to about—
(A) 365 days
(B) Six million miles
(C) Six billion miles
(D) Six trillion miles
Ans : (D)
7. Denmark, Iceland, Norway, Sweden and Finland are together called—
(A) Slovakia
(B) Scandinavia
(C) Netherlands
(D) Australasia
Ans : (B)
8. The device used for locating submerged objects under sea is—
(A) Sonar
(B) Radar
(C) Laser
(D) Maser
Ans : (A)
9. Which article of the Constitution provides the Parliament the power to ammend Constitution ?
(A) 376
(B) 370
(C) 368
(D) 390
Ans : (C)
10. What is the name of the first successfully cloned deer ?
(A) Dawn
(B) Deluxe
(C) Demor
(D) Dewey
Ans : (D)
11. The idea of motion pictures was propounded by—
(A) N. R. Finsen
(B) T. A. Edison
(C) J. L. Baird
(D) Berliner
Ans : (B)
12. In Greek mythology, Apollo is the god of which of the following ?
(A) Love
(B) Peace
(C) Prophecy
(D) Medicine
Ans : (C)
13. NASA’s new space telescope is—
(A) Wise
(B) Rise
(C) Barack
(D) Telle
Ans : (A)
14. Bull fighting is the national game of—
(A) Italy
(B) Poland
(C) Spain
(D) Sudan
Ans : (C)
15. In a rare recognition, the Government of Mauritius decides to introduce a book written by Uttarakhand Chief Minister Ramesh Pokhriyal Nishank in the School Syllabus of the island nation, what is the name of the book ?
(A) Sound of Hills
(B) Sparsh Ganga
(C) Heaven
(D) Amrit
Ans : (B)
16. Who has been selected for the ‘Niwano Peace Prize, 2010’ for her contribution to the uplift of poor women in India ?
(A) Ela Bhatt
(B) Jhumpa Lahiri
(C) Punam Suri
(D) Mandakni Apte
Ans : (A)
17. On which of the following dates in 2010 did the safeguard agreement with regard to civilian nuclear facilities between India and the International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) come into force ?
(A) February 28
(B) February 21
(C) February 11
(D) February 4
Ans : (D)
18. The tax which the kings used to collect from the people in the Vedic period was called—
(A) Bali
(B) Vidatha
(C) Varman
(D) Kara
Ans : (B)
19. The cells which are responsible for the production of antibodies are—
(A) Red blood cells
(B) Neutrophils
(C) Lymphocytes
(D) Platelets
Ans : (C)
20. Correct expansion of the term ‘http’ in Internet address is—
(A) Hybrid text transfer protocol
(B) Hyper text transfer protocol
(C) Higher transfer text protocol
(D) Higher text transfer protocol
Ans : (B)
*******************************************************
General Awareness (Held on 10-08-2008)
1. The foreign trade policy announced in the year 2004 was announced for a period of—
(A) two years
(B) three years
(C) four years
(D) five years
(E) ten years
Ans : (D)
2. As per reports in the newspapers the Indian Rupee is appreciating these days. What does it really mean it ?
(1) The value of the Rupee has gone up. It is now 110 paise and not 100 paise.
(2) The exchange rate of Rupee has gone up.
(3) Now we can purchase more in one Rupee which was not possible earlier.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Both 1 & 2
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
3. As per newspaper reports the inflation in India and China was at very high level . In such a situation the central Banks of these countries are required to follow—
(A) a more liberal credit policy
(B) a very tight credit policy
(C) create an atmosphere of easy liquidity in the market.
(D) raise the limits of personal and corporate income taxes.
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
4. The US Federal Reserve had recently reduced the interest rates by 150 basis points in the last few months. This was done because—
(A) US was going into recession.
(B) Inflation was high in countries like India and China hence a correction in economic policies by all the countries was needed.
(C) Euro had become more attractive currency, hence US wanted to save dollars from further depreciation.
(D) Iraq had bacome a very lucrative destination for foreign investment . US does not want it to happen.
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
5. The Stock market index of London Stock Market is referred as—
(A) Sensex
(B) Footsie (FTSE)
(C) NIFTY
(D) Bullish
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
6. As we all know Ministry of Finance every year prepare Union Budget and present it to the parliament . Which of the following is / are the elements of the Union Budget ?
(1) Estimates of revenue and capital receipts.
(2) Ways and MeAns : to raise the revenue.
(3) Estimates of expenditure.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1, 2 & 3
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
7. Which of the following is NOT used as raw material for production of nuclear power?
(A) Uranium
(B) Barylium
(C) Zirconium
(D) Sodium
(E) All these are used
Ans : (A)
8. As per figure released recently, the GDP growth in the last two years has been in the range of—
(A) 6%–7%
(B) 7%–8%
(C) 8%–9%
(D) 9%–9.5%
(E) 10%–11%
Ans : (D)
9. Sri Lankan Monitoring Mission (SLMM) has Nordic Monitors from five nations. Which of the following is NOT one of them?
(A) India
(B) Sweden
(C) Norway
(D) Denmark
(E) Iceland
Ans : (A)
10.Many a times we read a term in financial newspaper GDR. What is the full form of the same?
(A) Gross Domestic Revenue
(B) Global Domestic Ratio
(C) Global Depository Receipts
(D) Gross Depository Revenue
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
11. The Govt. of India has fixed some targets for various programmes for the entire plan period/or a part of it. Which of the following is/are TRUE about the Bharat Nirman Programme?
(1) The plan envisages irrigation of 10 million hectares additional land.
(2) It is planned that about six hundred km. of new roads will be developed every month.
(3) About 1000 new telephone connections will be given to rural areas every month so that by the end of the plan all villages in India are brought under telephone services network.
(A) Only (1) is true
(B) Only (2) is true
(C) Only (3) is true
(D) All (1), (2) & (3) are true
(E) None is true
Ans : (A)
12. Who played the role of the Hockey coach in the Film 'Chak De India' for which he was given the award for Best Actor?
(A) Shahrukh Khan
(B) Abhishek Bachchan
(C) Aaamir Khan
(D) Salman Khan
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
13. India has signed a Memorandum of Understanding (MOU) with which of the following countries which says they will create a "Multi Polar Order" based on the rule of law, sovereign equality and non-interference in internal affairs of States?
(A) USA
(B) Nepal
(C) China
(D) Britain
(E) Russia
Ans : (E)
14. Recently one Indian cricket player has become the sixth batsman to earn 10000 runs in Test Crickets. The name of the player is—
(A) Virendra Sehwag
(B) Sachin Tendulkar
(C) Sourav Ganguly
(D) Anil Kumble
(E) Rahul Dravid
Ans : (E)
15. Yousuf Raza Gillani who was elected the Prime Minister of Pakistan is from which political parties?
(A) Jamiat-e-Ulema Islami
(B) Pakistan People's Party
(C) Awami National Party
(D) Muslim League
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
16. As per the Govt. Notifications / Advertisements given in various newspapers the wheat procurement this year was of a record of 210 lakh MTs. Which of the following was/were the contributory factors in such a record making procurement?
(1) Minimum support price was keep as Rs. 1,500/- per quintal.
(2) Wheat was also procured from non-traditional State like Gujrat and Maharashtra
(3) State Govt. were also involved actively in the Scheme
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Both 1 & 2
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
17. Very often we read in newspapers that some sports persons have to go for a Dope Test after their performance in the field. Why Dope Test is conducted ?
(1) To know the general health of the sports person
(2) To know the sugar level of their blood
(3) To detect whether they have taken any performance inhancing drugs
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1, 2 & 3
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
18. Santosh Trophy is associated with the game of—
(A) Cricket
(B) Badminton
(C) Tennis
(D) Chess
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
Hint : Santosh Trophy is associated with the game of Football.
19. As per the newspaper reports some economically developed states onlt hold about 60% of the total 'Demat Accounts in India. A Demat Account is—
(A) an acount which is opened by the people of the lower income groups of the society.
(B) an account in which trading of the shares is done.
(C) an account which can be opened only by minors.
(D) an account which can be operated by big corporate houses and are mainly business accounts like current accounts.
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
20. Federal Reserve is the Financial Organization of the—
(A) USA
(B) Britain
(C) France
(D) Japan
(E) Germany
Ans : (A)
21. Which of the following organization is known as Market Regulator in India?
(A) IBA
(B) SEBI
(C) AMFI
(D) NSDL
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
22. Which of the following phenomenon occurred /surfaced recently associated with the economy of USA has put a catastrophic influence on the economy of the World?
(A) Increase in the oil prices
(B) High level of inflation
(C) Huge and mounting expenditure due to attack on Iraq by USA and allied forces.
(D) Sub-prime Crisis
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
23. The Reserve Bank of India keeps on changing various ratio/rates frequently. Why this is done?
(1) To keep inflation under control.
(2) To ensure that Indian Rupee does not loose its market value.
(3) To ensure that Banks do not earn huge profits at the cost of public money.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1, 2 & 3
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
24. Which of the following is true about the National Rural Employment Guarantee Act?
(1) It is applicable only in 100 rural districts.
(2) It gives a guaranteed employment of 100 days to all those who are eligible for the same and are also willing to take it.
(3) This Act is applicable only for men between the age of 21-65. Women do not get the benefit of the same.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1 , 2 & 3
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
25. Many times we here about SEZ in newspapers/magazines. What is the full form of SEZ?
(A) Small Economic Zone
(B) Social Economic Zone
(C) Special Enforcewment Zone
(D) Service & Economic Zone
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
19. As per the newspaper reports some economically developed states onlt hold about 60% of the total 'Demat Accounts in India. A Demat Account is—
(A) an acount which is opened by the people of the lower income groups of the society.
(B) an account in which trading of the shares is done.
(C) an account which can be opened only by minors.
(D) an account which can be operated by big corporate houses and are mainly business accounts like current accounts.
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
20. Federal Reserve is the Financial Organization of the—
(A) USA
(B) Britain
(C) France
(D) Japan
(E) Germany
Ans : (A)
21. Which of the following organization is known as Market Regulator in India?
(A) IBA
(B) SEBI
(C) AMFI
(D) NSDL
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
22. Which of the following phenomenon occurred /surfaced recently associated with the economy of USA has put a catastrophic influence on the economy of the World?
(A) Increase in the oil prices
(B) High level of inflation
(C) Huge and mounting expenditure due to attack on Iraq by USA and allied forces.
(D) Sub-prime Crisis
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
23. The Reserve Bank of India keeps on changing various ratio/rates frequently. Why this is done?
(1) To keep inflation under control.
(2) To ensure that Indian Rupee does not loose its market value.
(3) To ensure that Banks do not earn huge profits at the cost of public money.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1, 2 & 3
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
24. Which of the following is true about the National Rural Employment Guarantee Act?
(1) It is applicable only in 100 rural districts.
(2) It gives a guaranteed employment of 100 days to all those who are eligible for the same and are also willing to take it.
(3) This Act is applicable only for men between the age of 21-65. Women do not get the benefit of the same.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1 , 2 & 3
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
25. Many times we here about SEZ in newspapers/magazines. What is the full form of SEZ?
(A) Small Economic Zone
(B) Social Economic Zone
(C) Special Enforcewment Zone
(D) Service & Economic Zone
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
****************************************************
Directions: In this Section you have Six short passages. After each passage you will find several questions based on the passage. First, read Passage-I, and answer the questions based on it. Then go on to the other passages.
PASSAGE—I
The martyrs who laid down their lives for the freedom of the country, had a lofty vision of the future. They wanted the nation to be free from all the slavery and bondage. They wanted an India in which all the communities would live in perfect harmony and in which there would be no high class and no low class of people, the curse of untouchability having been wiped out completely. Women would enjoy equal rights with men and contribute their fullest to the making of a great nation. Such a vision was in keeping with the ancient glory of the country renowned for its splendid achievements in literature, art and culture.
We must now revitalise this ancient culture of ours with tolerance as its masthead. If we forget or cease to take pride in our noble heritage, we shall have to face severe indictment in the court of history which is a ruthless judge and seldom spares the erring people.
1. The martyrs who died for the freedom of India wanted:
(a) the country to be the strongest nation in the world
(b) the country to rule over the other nations
(c) the country to be free from slavery
(d) the people to give up their antiquated customs
2. These martyrs wanted that:
(a) there should be reservation in the jobs for the backward sections of the society
(b) there should be perfect communal love and peace in the country
(c) the old caste-system should be retained in the future
(d) the women should look after their families only
3. We must strive with our total commitment to:
(a) defeat and overcome the enemies of the nation
(b) revitalise our rich past culture
(c) inject scientific temper into our past culture
(d) make scientific advancements
4. Our freedom-fighters envisioned that in free India:
(a) there would be an egalitarian society
(b) women would enjoy higher privileges and rights than others
(c) the country would be taken forward by some selected classes of the society
(d) industrialisation should occupy the top priority
PASSAGE—II
Dr S. Radhakrishnan, the illustrious philosopher statesman of India, was one of the greatest sons of our motherland. He cautioned the world against the domination of science in society. It is erroneous to claim that scientific knowledge would bring with it perpetual progress and a steady improvement in human relations. The recent period of great scientific achievements has also increased human misery: two world wars, concentration camps, atomic destruction, cold war, deadly wars in the middle east, Persian Gulf and at many other places in the world. Growth in human wisdom has not been commensurate with the increase in scientific knowledge and power. The fear of universal destruction hangs over the world. There is a feeling of disenchantment, anxiety and even despair. Science has failed to liberate man from the tyranny of his own nature.
Dr S. Radhakrishnan, the illustrious philosopher statesman of India, was one of the greatest sons of our motherland. He cautioned the world against the domination of science in society. It is erroneous to claim that scientific knowledge would bring with it perpetual progress and a steady improvement in human relations. The recent period of great scientific achievements has also increased human misery: two world wars, concentration camps, atomic destruction, cold war, deadly wars in the middle east, Persian Gulf and at many other places in the world. Growth in human wisdom has not been commensurate with the increase in scientific knowledge and power. The fear of universal destruction hangs over the world. There is a feeling of disenchantment, anxiety and even despair. Science has failed to liberate man from the tyranny of his own nature.
Mankind is passing through a critical period and an education of the human spirit has become essential. In order to remake society, man has to remake himself. If humanity is to survive, man must integrate his knowledge with a social responsibility.
5. Dr S. Radhakrishnan has:
(a) emphasised that science should be banished from the society
(b) opposed the teaching of science in educational institutions
(c) favoured scientific thinking in life
(d) counselled that preponderance of science in life does not necessarily generate happiness
6. The recent past of tremendous scientific progress has:
(a) made the world a very happy place
(b) led to global warming
(c) brought about internal transformation in men
(d) shown that human wisdom has not kept pace with galloping scientific knowledge
7. Man is despaired of science because:
(a) science has given too much knowledge
(b) science has brought him excessive material comforts
(c) he has become a captive of science
(d) he is confronted with the nightmare of total annihilation of the world
. Man can save humanity only if he:
(a) abandons science
(b) brings about an internal transformation in himself
(c) makes his life more comfortable with scientific gadgets
(d) goes back to nature and primitive times
9. In this passage, the writer has tried to show that:
(a) science is the only saviour that shall lead humanity forward
(b) science can bring about an end to all the wars
(c) social change comes with the advancement of science
(d) human wisdom must grow proportionately with growth of knowledge to evolve a creative integration to help mankind
PASSAGE—III
In Asia and much of the Third World, trees are still destroyed in the old-fashioned way : they are cut down for fuel and cropland. In Europe, there is new and potentially more deadly culprit. The Germans call it ‘Waldsterben’, the dying forest syndrome. But the disease is far more than a German phenomenon. Since it was first observed by German scientists in the autumn of 1980, the mysterious malady has raced across Europe, blighting woods in countries as far apart as Sweden and Italy.
In Asia and much of the Third World, trees are still destroyed in the old-fashioned way : they are cut down for fuel and cropland. In Europe, there is new and potentially more deadly culprit. The Germans call it ‘Waldsterben’, the dying forest syndrome. But the disease is far more than a German phenomenon. Since it was first observed by German scientists in the autumn of 1980, the mysterious malady has raced across Europe, blighting woods in countries as far apart as Sweden and Italy.
Explanations for the epidemic range from a cyclic change in the environment to a baffling form of tree cancer. But the most convincing evidence points to air pollution. Indeed, saving the rapidly deteriorating forests of Europe will probably require a two-pronged strategy : an offensive campaign that includes the breeding of pollution-immune trees and a defensive scheme that calls for reductions in toxic emissions. But both will require more money than is currently being spent on such measures, as well as total commitment to protecting the environment.
10. According to the passage, which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) There is less damage in Asia than in Europe
(b) More forests are dying in Germany than anywhere else in Europe
(c) A cyclic change in the environment is responsible for deforestation
(d) Air pollution is the main culprit of destroying European forests
11. Saving the tress of European forests:
(a) should not be difficult because of the advances in experimental research
(b) appears to be a hopeless task and therefore pointless to undertake
(c) requires a much bigger budget
(d) demands vigilance and punitive measures against those who cut down the trees
12. The dying forest syndrome is a disease that:
(a) is peculiar to the forests of Asia
(b) has spread rapidly over the forests of Europe
(c) is confined to the forests of Germany
(d) has affected forests all over the world
13. The writer suggests that:
(a) it is no longer possible to grow trees in industrialized areas
(b) pollution-immune trees wil absorb toxic emissions
(c) all pollution-prone trees should be destroyed
(d) it is not possible to grow trees that remain unaffected by pollution
14. The writer’s approach toward the problem of forest devastation is one of:
(a) tolerance
(b) indifference
(c) well thought-out strategy
(d) despondency
PASSAGE—IV
One of the major crises facing the country is the looming water shortage. A recent report of the UN has named India among the worst countries for poor quality of ater. The report ranks 122 countries according to the quality of their water as well as their ability and commitment to improve the situation. Belgium is considered the worst basically because of the quality of its ground water.
One of the major crises facing the country is the looming water shortage. A recent report of the UN has named India among the worst countries for poor quality of ater. The report ranks 122 countries according to the quality of their water as well as their ability and commitment to improve the situation. Belgium is considered the worst basically because of the quality of its ground water.
Rains failed in most parts of India last year and the vast areas of Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Andhra and Orissa were in the grip of devastating drought. People without water turn desperate and violent. Villagers in Rajasthan last year attacked the Food Corporation godowns.
Worse may be coming. With man refusing to control pollution (America, the world’s greatest polluter, refuses to cooperate with other countries) the world is getting hotter. This means that the great ice shelves (weighing billions of tonnes) of the Antarctic are collapsing. We cannot even conceptualise the dangerous consequences. Last century, sea levels in Venice rose by one step of a staircase. This century they are expected to rise by five steps. An additional cause for Venice’s sinking is the draining of underground water table due to industrialization.
The water tables in our cities have also been going lower and lower. When ocean level rises, Tuvalu in the Pacific Ocean will be the first to go under the waves. Citizens of that country are already migrating to New Zealand. Will citizens of Maldives crowd into Kerala? Will another mass migration from Bangladesh turn West Bengal upside down?
15. Citizens of Tuvalu are migrating to:
(a) Belgium (b) West Indies
(c) Morocco (d) New Zealand
16. Belgium, is suffering acutely because of:
(a) the sluggish pace of its economy
(b) the discharge of industrial effluents
(c) quality of its ground water
(d) rising cost of living
17. Villagers in Rajasthan attacked Food Corporation godowns because of:
(a) low prices offered to them for wheat
(b) refusal of Food Corporation to buy wheat from the local farmers
(c) no financial help from the government bodies
(d) shortage of water
18. One of the reasons for Venice’s sinking is:
(a) industrialization
(b) its proneness to earthquake
(c) felling of trees
(d) civil construction
PASSAGE—V
Most of us use the products of science—railways, aeroplanes, electricity, wireless and thousands of others—without thinking how did they come into existence. We take them for granted, as if we were entitled to them as a matter of right. And we are very proud of the fact that we live in an advanced age and are ourselves so very advanced. Now, there is no doubt that our age is a very different one from previous ages and I think it is perfectly correct to say that it is far more advanced. But that is a different thing from saying that e as individuals or groups are more advanced. It would be the height of absurdity to say that because an engine driver can run an engine and Plato or Socrates could not, the engine driver is more advanced than, or is superior to, Plato or Socrates. But it would be perfectly correct to say that the engine itself is a more advanced method of locomotion than Plato’s chariot was.
Most of us use the products of science—railways, aeroplanes, electricity, wireless and thousands of others—without thinking how did they come into existence. We take them for granted, as if we were entitled to them as a matter of right. And we are very proud of the fact that we live in an advanced age and are ourselves so very advanced. Now, there is no doubt that our age is a very different one from previous ages and I think it is perfectly correct to say that it is far more advanced. But that is a different thing from saying that e as individuals or groups are more advanced. It would be the height of absurdity to say that because an engine driver can run an engine and Plato or Socrates could not, the engine driver is more advanced than, or is superior to, Plato or Socrates. But it would be perfectly correct to say that the engine itself is a more advanced method of locomotion than Plato’s chariot was.
19. Which one of the following statements is correct:
(a) An engine driver cannot be compared to Plato or Socrates
(b) Plato or Socrates is in no way inferior to the engine driver
(c) Plato or Socrates surpassed the engine driver in every respect
(d) An engine driver is cleverer than Plato or Socrates
20. People today are very proud because they:
(a) live in a philosophically advanced age
(b) live in a spiritually advanced age
(c) enjoy digital communications
(d) live in a scientifically advanced age
21. Many of us make use of machines:
(a) with full knowledge of their genesis
(b) without knowing how were they invented
(c) with very little knowledge of their mechanism
(d) without any knowledge of their historical significance
22. In this passage, the writer mentions Plato and Socrates to emphasise that:
(a) they had a great respect for learning
(b) they were men of great scholarship
(c) people as individuals in the modern age are not more advanced than their predecessors
(d) the engine is a better mode of locomotion than Plato’s chariot
PASSAGE—VI
To sum up the whole, we should say that the aim of the Platonic philosophy was to exalt man into a God. The aim of the Baconian philosophy was to provide man with what he requires while he continues to be a man. The aim of Platonic philosophy was to raise us far above the vulgar wants. The aim of Baconian philosophy was to supply our vulgar wants. The former aim was noble; but the latter was attainable. Plato drew a good bow; he aimed at the stars; and therefore, though there was no want of strength or skill, the shot was thrown away. His arrow was indeed followed by a track of dazzling radiance; but it struck nothing. Bacon fixed his eye on a mark which was placed on earth and hit it in the white. The philosophy of Plato began with words and ended in words, noble words indeed, words such as were to be expected from the finest of human intellects exercising boundless dominion over the finest of languages.
To sum up the whole, we should say that the aim of the Platonic philosophy was to exalt man into a God. The aim of the Baconian philosophy was to provide man with what he requires while he continues to be a man. The aim of Platonic philosophy was to raise us far above the vulgar wants. The aim of Baconian philosophy was to supply our vulgar wants. The former aim was noble; but the latter was attainable. Plato drew a good bow; he aimed at the stars; and therefore, though there was no want of strength or skill, the shot was thrown away. His arrow was indeed followed by a track of dazzling radiance; but it struck nothing. Bacon fixed his eye on a mark which was placed on earth and hit it in the white. The philosophy of Plato began with words and ended in words, noble words indeed, words such as were to be expected from the finest of human intellects exercising boundless dominion over the finest of languages.
23. The above passage presents Platonic philosophy as:
(a) giving rise to volgar wants
(b) too idealistic in terms of a realistic assessment of a man
(c) no more than mere words
(d) being pragmatic
24. The author in the above passage:
(a) praises Platonic philosophy
(b) explains the drawbacks of Baconian philosophy
(c) balances opposite views in order to arrive at a just definition of each
(d) compares and contrasts two systems towards which he is impartial
25. Which one of the following best reflects the underlying tone of the passage?
(a) All ideas regarding man are couched in noble words
(b) Man when exalted into a God comes to nothing
(c) It is better for man to continue to be a man
(d) It is the image of man conceived differently that makes the basic distinction between different systems
26. Which of the following words in the passage confirm the exalted notions of man according to Plato?
(a) ‘exercising boundless dominion’
(b) ‘he aimed at the stars’
(c) ‘fixed his eye on the mark and hit it in the white’
(d) ‘there was no want of strength or skill, the shot was thrown away’
27. The reference to a bow and an arrow in the passage:
(a) serves as an example of Plato’s strength
(b) teaches us to stay focused on target
(c) shows us a track of dazzling brilliance in man’s history
(d) shows us the comparative strengths and weaknesses of Platonic and Baconian systems
SENTENCE IMPROVEMENT
Directions: Look at the underlined part of each sentence. Below each sentence are given three possible substitutions for the underlined part.
If one of them (a), (b) or (c) is better than the underlined part, indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter (a), (b) or (c).
If none of the substitutions improve the sentence, indicate (d) as your response on the Answer Sheet. Thus a ‘No improvement’ response will be signified by the letter (d).
28. The Union Finance Minister has said that fresh recruitment will be restricted to one-third of the vacancies that arise in the government jobs:
(a) rise (b) raise (c) arouse (d) No improvement
29. Our armed forces are superior to those of any other country in the world.
(a) superior than (b) superior from
(c) superior over (d) No improvement
30. He secured the first position in a hundred metres race:
(a) a hundred metre race
(b) hundred metres race
(c) one hundred metres race
(d) No improvement
31. Working in the slums brought her in against the realities of poverty.
(a) brought her forward
(b) brought her up
(c) brought her on
(d) No improvement
32. I hope it’s not imposing on your hospitality, but could I stay to dinner?
(a) stay over (b) stay up to
(c) stay at (d) No improvement
33. I have dreamt all my life for owning a beautiful maroon-coloured car.
(a) of owning (b) to owning
(c) at owning (d) No improvement
34. The war has had a negative impact over the economy of the country.
(a) in the economy (b) on the economy
(c) in economy (d) No improvement
35. They claimed to bring the best products and services on the doorsteps of their consumers.
(a) up to the doorsteps (b) to the doorsteps
(c) at the doorsteps (d) No improvement
36. My company has decided to go it alone rather than set up a joint venture.
(a) put up (b) deal with
(c) go along with (d) No improvement
37. The last exercise was fairly easier than I thought it would be:
(a) more (b) rather
(c) comparatively (d) No improvement
38. The Chief Manager asked me to carry on his orders immediately.
(a) carry forward (b) carry out
(c) carry with (d) No improvement
39. The profit will be dealt with among the investors:
(a) dealt in (b) dealt out
(c) dealt of (d) No improvement
40. Your advice is no different from the other friends.
(a) not different from
(b) not different from that of the
(c) not different from the
(d) No improvement
41. It was she, not me, who put forth the attractive proposition.
(a) she, not I, (b) her, not me,
(c) her, not I, (d) No improvement
42. His love of languages bent him towards a career as a translator.
(a) inclined him (b) twisted him
(c) directed him (d) No improvement
43. His suggestion was greeted with hoots of laughter.
(a) greeted in (b) greeted over
(c) greeted at (d) No improvement
ORDERING OF SENTENCES
Directions: In the following items each passage consists of six sentences. The first and the sixth sentence are given in the beginning. The middle four sentences in each have been removed and jumbled up. These are labelled P, Q, R and S. You are required to find out the proper sequence of the four sentences and mark accordingly on the Answer Sheet.
44. S1 : It is said that deep down people are alike. S6 : People differ in intelligence, personality, emotional display, values, priorities and the like. P : However in the broadest sense we can saypeople are all alike.
Q : This statement is essentially false.
R : But the individual differences are far more illuminating.
S : For instance, it’s true that people all have attitudes, likes and dislikes, feelings and similar attributes.
The proper sequence should be:
(a) Q R S P (b) S P Q R
(c) Q P S R (d) S R Q P
45. S1 : Let us look at the statement ‘It’s not what you say, but it’s what you do’.
S6 : But when words and actions diverge, people focus most on what they see in terms of behaviour.
P : Actions do speak louder than words.
Q : Words can influence others; we don’t deny.
R : The statement is mostly true.
S : This doesn’t mean that words fall on deaf ears.
The proper sequence should be:
(a) S Q R P (b) R P S Q
(c) S P R Q (d) R Q S P
46. S1 : There are no limit to insanitation.
S6 : So I asked for a broom to clean them myself.
P : There were only a few latrines
Q : They refused point-blank to clean them.
R : Pools of water were everywhere.
S : I pointed it out to the volunteers.
The proper sequence should be:
(a) R S P Q (b) Q P S R
(a) R S P Q (b) Q P S R
(c) R P S Q (d) Q S P R
47. S1 : I did not feel at all sea-sick.
S6 : For I could rarely follow their remarks when they came up to speak to me.
P : I was quite unaccustomed to talking English, and except one all the other passengers in the second saloon were English.
Q : But as the days passed, I became fidgety.
R : I could not speak to them.
S : I felt shy even in speaking to the steward..
The proper sequence should be:
(a) P S Q R (b) Q R P S
(a) P S Q R (b) Q R P S
(c) P R Q S (d) Q S P R
48. S1 : The hall darkened
S6 : And then father taught the girl arithmetic.
P : After all that, his father came on the screen.
Q : And then a little girl came up, and he spoke to her exactly as he used to speak to Sambu.
R : He was wearing just the dhoti and shirt he used to wear at home.
S : Sambu sat through the trailers and slide advertisements without enthusiasm.
The proper sequence should be:
(a) Q R P S (b) S P R Q
(c) Q P R S (d) S R P Q
49. S1 : Love for the country is a necessity.
S6 : God created the globe, but man drew lines of hatred and emmity on it.
P : Similarly nationalism has to be sacrificed at the altar of internationalism.
Q : But it should in no way exceed the limits and take the shape of jingoism.
R : Provincialism has to be sacrificed in the interest of the nation as a whole.
S : There is no reason why the nations of the world cannot live together with harmony and peace.
The proper sequence should be:
(a) P R Q S (b) Q S P R
(a) P R Q S (b) Q S P R
(c) P S Q R (d) Q R P S
SELECTING WORDS/PHRASES
Directions: In the following passage at certain points, you are given a choice of three words/phrases, underlined and marked (a), (b), (c). Choose the best word/phrase out of the three and indicate your choice in the relevant column of your Answer Sheet.
Directions: In the following passage at certain points, you are given a choice of three words/phrases, underlined and marked (a), (b), (c). Choose the best word/phrase out of the three and indicate your choice in the relevant column of your Answer Sheet.
50.
(a) acquired
(a) acquired
(b) achieved
(c) obtained
freedom produces; and that cure is freedom. When a person first leaves his
51.
(a) prison
(a) prison
(b) barrack
(c) cell
he cannot
52. (a) bear
(b) stand
(c) tolerate
the light of day, he is unable to
53. (a) distinguish
(b) discriminate
(c) separate
or recognize faces. But the remedy is not to
54. (a) push
(b) throw
(c) remand
him to his
55. (a) quagmire
(b) dungeon
(c) precipice
but to
56. (a) adopt
(b) accustom
(c) reconcile
him to the
57. (a) rays
(b) twilight
(c) glare
of the sun. The blaze of truth and liberty at first
58. (a) glitters
(b) blazes
(c) dazzles
and bewilders nations which have become half blind in the house of
59. (a) prison.
(b) bondage.
(c) slaves.
But let them gaze on and they will soon be able to
60. (a) bear
(b) tolerate
(c) assimilate
it. In a few years men will learn to reason. The extreme violence of opinion
::: ANSWERS :::
1. (c) 2. (b) 3. (b) 4. (a) 5. (d) 6. (d) 7. (d) 8. (b) 9. (d) 10. (d) 11. (c) 12. (b) 13. (b) 14. (c) 15. (d) 16. (c) 17. (d) 18. (a) 19. (a) 20. (d) 21. (b) 22. (d) 23. (b) 24. (c) 25. (d) 26. (b) 27. (d) 28. (d) 29. (d) 30. (a) 31. (b) 32. (d) 33. (a) 34. (b) 35. (d) 36. (d) 37. (c) 38. (b) 39. (b) 40. (b) 41. (a) 42. (a) 43. (d) 44. (b) 45. (b) 46. (a) 47. (d) 48. (b) 49. (d) 50. (a) 51. (c) 52. (a) 53. (a) 54. (b) 55. (b) 56. (c) 57. (a) 58. (c) 59. (c) 60. (c)
1. (c) 2. (b) 3. (b) 4. (a) 5. (d) 6. (d) 7. (d) 8. (b) 9. (d) 10. (d) 11. (c) 12. (b) 13. (b) 14. (c) 15. (d) 16. (c) 17. (d) 18. (a) 19. (a) 20. (d) 21. (b) 22. (d) 23. (b) 24. (c) 25. (d) 26. (b) 27. (d) 28. (d) 29. (d) 30. (a) 31. (b) 32. (d) 33. (a) 34. (b) 35. (d) 36. (d) 37. (c) 38. (b) 39. (b) 40. (b) 41. (a) 42. (a) 43. (d) 44. (b) 45. (b) 46. (a) 47. (d) 48. (b) 49. (d) 50. (a) 51. (c) 52. (a) 53. (a) 54. (b) 55. (b) 56. (c) 57. (a) 58. (c) 59. (c) 60. (c)
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GIC_Quantitatative _Aptitude_SOLVED
GIC_Quantitatative _Aptitude_SOLVED
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