Previous Exam/Solved papers of NDA (National Defence Academy)-july 2011

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1. Previous Exam/Solved Papers of NATIONAL DEFENCE ACADEMY EXAM.-2009(General Studies)
2. Previous Exam/Solved Papers of NATIONAL DEFENCE ACADEMY EXAM.-2004(English)

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 NATIONAL DEFENCE ACADEMY EXAM.,  (Held on 18-4-2009) General Studies -July 2011
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1. Which one of the following pairs does not have the same dimen-sion ?

(A) Potential energy and kinetic energy

(B) Density and specific gravity

(C) Focal length and height

(D) Gravitational force and frictional force

2. Which one of the following graphs represents uniform motion ?

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

3. How many sixty watt (60 W) bulbs may be safely used in a 240-V supply with 4-ampere fuse ?

(A) 4 (B) 8

(C) 12 (D) 16

4. A vessel contains oil (density r1) over a liquid of density r2; a homogeneous sphere of volume V floats with half of its volume immersed in the liquid and the other half in oil. The weight of the sphere is—

(A) V(r2 – r1) / 2

(B) V(r2 + r1)g / 2

(C) V(r2 + r1)

(D) V(r2 + r1) / 2

5. For a simple pendulum in simple harmonic motion, which of the following statements is/are correct ?

1. The kinetic energy is maxi-mum at the mean position.

2. The potential energy is maximum at the mean position.

3. Acceleration is maximum at the mean position.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

Codes :

(A) 1 only

(B) 2 only

(C) 1 and 3

(D) 2 and 3

Directions—(Q. 10–13) The following four items are based on the Table given below. You are to match List-I with List-II, List-III and List-IV, and select the correct answer using the code given below :
List–I (Element) List–II (Property) List–III (Property/Composition) List–IV (Property/Composition)
A. Diamond

B. Graphite
1. Thermosetting polymer I. Rigid structure

II. Sheet-like
i. Non-conductor of heat
C. Rayon 2. Monomer structure ii. Ester
D. Nylon 3. Soft III. Cellulose iii. Conductor of heat
E. Carbon 4. Viscose process IV. Soft on heating iv. Ether
fibre

F. Polyvinyl
5. Synthetic fibre

6. High strength
V. Unreactive

VI. Corrosion
v. Silk-like thread

vi. Spacecraft
chloride

G. Terylene

H. Bakelite
7. Thermoplastic

8. Polyester fibre

9. Hardest natural
VII. Melts instead of burning

VIII. Ethylene glycol
vii. Chlorine atom replaces hydrogen atom
substance IX. Phenol and viii. Cross-linked
formaldehyde ix. Terephthalic acid

10. List-I List-II List-III List-IV

(A) A 9 I i

(B) B 3 IV iv

(C) A 9 I ii

(D) B 3 II v

6. The metal atom, which is present in superphosphate, is—

(A) sodium (Na)

(B) potassium (K)

(C) calcium (Ca)

(D) magnesium (Mg)

7. The best and the poorest conduc-tors of heat are respectively—

(A) silver (Ag) and lead (Pb)

(B) copper (Cu) and aluminium (Al)

(C) silver (Ag) and gold (Au)

(D) copper (Cu) and gold (Au)

8. Which one among the following metals is more reactive than hydrogen ?

(A) Mercury (B) Copper

(C) Silver (D) Tin

9. The number of neutrons in 13Al27 is—

(A) 40 (B) 27

(C) 14 (D) 13

11. List-I List-II List-III List-IV

(A) C 4 II i

(B) D 5 VII v

(C) C 6 V vi

(D) D 5 II iv

12. List-I List-II List-III List-IV

(A) E 6 I vi

(B) F 7 IV ix

(C) E 6 VI vi

(D) F 3 VI v

13. List-I List-II List-III List-IV

(A) G 8 I ix

(B) H 4 IV iii

(C) G 8 VIII ix

(D) H 1 VI viii

14. Which of the following is a transi-tion metal ?

(A) Aluminium (Al)

(B) Manganese (Mn)

(C) Magnesium (Mg)

(D) Calcium (Ca)

15. Which one of the following gases, present in the air near the surface of the Earth, has maximum con-centration ?

(A) Oxygen (O2)

(B) Hydrogen (H2)

(C) Nitrogen (N2)

(D) Methane (CH4)

16. Which one of the following ele-ments will replace hydrogen from acids to form salts ?

(A) Sulphur (S)

(B) Silicon (Si)

(C) Zinc (Zn)

(D) Phosphorus (P)

17. Which of the following repre-sents a chemical change ?

1. Magnetization of iron

2. Condensation of liquid

3. Burning of fuel

4. Rusting of iron

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

Codes :

(A) 1 and 2 (B) 2 and 3

(C) 3 and 4 (D) 1 and 4

18. Which one among the following is the correct order of reactivity of the elements ?

(A) Cu > Mg > Zn > Na

(B) Na > Zn > Mg > Cu

(C) Cu > Zn > Mg > Na

(D) Na > Mg > Zn > Cu

19. Vinegar is produced from—

(A) ethanoic acid

(B) valeric acid

(C) methanoic acid

(D) butanoic acid

20. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists—

List-I

(a) Ozone gas

(b) Nitrous oxide

(c) Carbon dioxide

(d) Carbon monoxide

List-II

1. Combines with haemoglobin

2. Ultraviolet radiation

3. Component of air in small quantity

4. Visible radiation

5. Infrared radiation

Codes :

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) 1 4 5 3

(B) 2 3 5 1

(C) 1 4 3 2

(D) 2 5 3 1

21. Iron ore from Kudremukh is most likely to be exported through—

(A) Goa

(B) Kochi

(C) Mangalore

(D) Ennore

22. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists—

List-I

(Type of vegetation)

(a) Mangrove (b) Scrub

(c) Teak (d) Coniferous

List-II

(State)

1. Madhya Pradesh

2. Karnataka

3. Rajasthan

4. Arunachal Pradesh

Codes :

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) 4 1 3 2

(B) 2 1 3 4

(C) 4 3 1 2

(D) 2 3 1 4

23. Arrange the following States on the basis of ascending dates of the onset of monsoon—

1. Uttar Pradesh

2. West Bengal

3. Kerala

4. Rajasthan

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

Codes :

(A) 2–3–1–4 (B) 3–2–1–4

(C) 3–1–2–4 (D) 1–2–3–4

24. Which of the following are west-flowing rivers ?

1. Krishna 2. Narmada

3. Mahanadi 4. Sabarmati

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

Codes :

(A) 2 and 4 (B) 1 and 3

(C) 1 and 4 (D) 2 and 4

25. Which of the following state-ments are correct ?

1. In a cyclone, the area of low pressure is at the centre surrounded by the areas of high pressure.

2. In a cyclone, the areas of low pressure surround the area of high pressure.

3. In an anti-cyclone, the area of high pressure is sur-rounded by the areas of low pressure.

4. In an anti-cyclone, the area of low pressure is sur-rounded by the areas of high pressure.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

Codes :

(A) 1 and 2 (B) 1 and 3

(C) 1 and 4 (D) 2 and 4

26. Which part of brain controls fine movement, maintains balance and equilibrium of the body and muscle tone in a human being ?

(A) Cerebrum

(B) Thalamus

(C) Cerebellum

(D) Hypothalamus

27. Leishmania, the causative agent of kala-azar, multiplies asexually by—

(A) budding

(B) binary fission

(C) multiple fission

(D) sporogony

28. Administering a vaccine pro-vides protection by inducing synthesis of antibodies (proteins) specific to the vaccine. The cell in the body responsible for the pro-duction of antibodies is—

(A) granulocyte

(B) lymphocyte

(C) erythrocyte (red blood cell)

(D) platelet

29. Biological catalysts in living organisms are known as—

(A) hormones (B) vitamins

(C) steroids (D) enzymes

30. To which one of the following types of organism do mushrooms belong ?

(A) Algae (B) Ferns

(C) Fungi (D) Lichens

31. Among the following elements, which one is essential for the transmission of impulses in the nerve fibre ?

(A) Calcium (B) Iron

(C) Sodium (D) Zinc

32. Cure to spinal injury is likely to emerge from—

(A) gene therapy

(B) stem cell therapy

(C) xenograft

(D) transfusion

33. Food wrapped in newspaper is likely to get contaminated with—

(A) lead

(B) aluminium

(C) iron

(D) magnesium

34. Which one among the following produes seeds but not flowers ?

(A) Cashew nut

(B) Coffee

(C) Groundnut

(D) Pine

35. Which among the following is not a true fruit ?

(A) Apple (B) Date

(C) Grape (D) Plum

Directions—(Q. 36–42) The following seven items consist of two statements, Statement I and State-ment II. You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the code given below :

Codes :

(A) Both the statements are indi-vidually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I.

(B) Both the statements are indi-vidually true but Statement II is not the correct explana-tion of Statement I.

(C) Statement I is true but State-ment II is false.

(D) Statement I is false but State-ment II is true.

36. Statement I : Coalition in India is always a post-poll phenomenon.

Statement II : The United Pro-gressive Alliance was formed after the Lok Sabha Election of 2004.

37. Statement I : The Constitution of India is a liberal Constitution.

Statement II : It provides Funda-mental Rights to individuals.

38. Statement I : In order to create linguistic provinces in India, the Congress Party constituted Moti-lal Nehru Committee in 1928.

Statement II : The Motilal Nehru Committee suggested creation of linguistic provinces in India.

39. Statement I : During the day, winds blow from sea to land.

Statement II : The land gets more heated than the surrounding sea, hence lower pressure develops over land as compared to sea.

40. Statement I : Winds are deflected to their right in the northern hemisphere and to their left in the southern hemisphere.

Statement II : The Earth’s axis is inclined.

41. Statement I : Pressure gradients determine the velocity of winds.

Statement II : When isobars (lines of equal atmospheric pressure) are closely spaced, the wind velocity would be gentle.

42. Statement I : Temperatures of countries like United Kingdom, Norway, the Netherlands and Denmark are higher as compared to places located on similar latitudes during the winter.

Statement II : United Kingdom, Norway, the Netherlands and Denmark are located on the coast.

43. Consider the following statement and identify with the help of the code given below the Viceroy who made the statement and when :

In my belief, Congress is tottering to its fall and one of my great ambi-tions while in India is to assist it to a peaceful demise.

Codes :

(A) Lord Curzon, in a letter to the Secretary of States in 1900

(B) Lord Curzon, while announc­ing the partition of Bengal

(C) Lord Dufferin, during the farewell speech at Calcutta

(D) Lord Minto, while address-ing the Muslim delegation which met him at Shimla in 1906

44. The Copenhagen Summit for Climate, 2009 saw—

(A) an agreement among the participants over CO2 emission

(B) unanimity of views among the developed and BASIC bloc of countries

(C) rise of African countries as a bloc

(D) acceptance of the US as a leader to attain the objective of the Copenhagen Summit

45. Consider the following para-graph and identify with the help of the code given below the writer referred to therein :

She is the winner of the Sahitya Akademi Award, the Jnanpith Award and is also India’s first Prin-cipal Prince Claus laureate. One of the most celebrated writers of con-temporary Indian literature, she is noted for her novels which include the Moth-Eaten Howdah of the Tusker, Pages Stained with Blood and The Man from Chinnamasta.

Codes :

(A) Anita Desai

(B) Indira Goswami

(C) Mahasweta Devi

(D) Chitra Mudgal

46. Consider the following para-graph and identify with the help of the code given below the Church referred to therein :

Considered as one of the best examples of baroque architecture in India, this World Heritage Monu-ment is dedicated to Infant Jesus. It houses the sacred relics of St. Francis Xavier, the patron saint, who died in 1552.

Codes :

(A) Santa Cruz Basilica

(B) St. Francis Church

(C) Church of the Holy Cross

(D) Basilica of Bom Jesus

47. Ms. Reena Kaushal Dharmshaktu is the first Indian woman—

(A) to reach Antarctica

(B) pilot inducted in Indian Air Force

(C) to ski to the South Pole

(D) to win the gold medal in Asian Boxing Championship

48. Which one among the following is the latest milestone of Doordar­shan, the public broadcaster of India ?

(A) Launch of enrichment/cul-tural channel—DD Bharati

(B) Launch of 24 hours news channel—DD news

(C) Launch of sports channel—DD Sports

(D) Formation of Prasar Bharati (Broadcasting Corporation of India)

49. START (Strategic Arms Reduc-tion Treaty) is a treaty between/ among—

(A) China and Japan

(B) USA and Russia

(C) USA and European Union

(D) China, India, USA and Russia

50. Which one of the following is not a member of BASIC bloc of coun-tries ?

(A) South Africa

(B) China

(C) India

(D) Australia

51. ‘Pitch’ is a characteristic of sound that depends upon its—

(A) intensity

(B) frequency

(C) quality

(D) None of the above

52. The ratio of the focal length of the objective to the focal length of the eyepiece is greater than one for—

(A) a microscope

(B) a telescope

(C) both microscope and tele-scope

(D) neither microscope nor tele-scope

53. The effective resistance of three equal resistances, each of resis-tance r, connected in parallel, is—

(A) (B)

(C) 3r (D) r3

54. A fan produces a feeling of com-fort during hot weather, because—

(A) our body radiates more heat in air

(B) fan supplies cool air

(C) conductivity of air increases

(D) our perspiration evaporates rapidly

55. Which one of the following state-ments is correct ?

(A) Only electrons reside inside the nucleus of an atom

(B) Both electrons and protons reside inside the nucleus of an atom

(C) Only neutrons reside inside the nucleus of an atom

(D) Both protons and neutrons can reside inside the nucleus of an atom

56. The ratio of velocity of X-rays to that of gamma rays—

(A) is < 1 (B) is > 1

(C) is 1

(D) depends upon the ratio of their frequencies

57. Which one of the following pairs of rays is electromagnetic in nature ?

(A) Beta rays and gamma rays

(B) Cathode rays and X-rays

(C) Alpha rays and beta rays

(D) X-rays and gamma rays

58. The magnetic lines of force due to a bar magnet—

(A) intersect inside the body of the magnet

(B) intersect at neutral points only

(C) intersect only at north and south poles

(D) cannot intersect at all

59. The specific resistance of a con-ducting wire depends upon—

(A) length of the wire, area of cross-section of the wire and material of the wire

(B) length of the wire and area of cross-section of the wire but not on the material of the wire

(C) material of the wire only but neither on the length of the wire nor on the area of cross-section of the wire

(D) length of the wire only but neither on the area of cross-sec-tion of the wire nor on the material of the wire

60. When X-rays are produced—

(A) heat is generated at the target

(B) heat is absorbed at the target

(C) the temperature of the target remains constant

(D) brilliant light is seen at the target

61. Which one of the statements given below is not correct ?

(A) A vertical plane passing through the axis of a freely sus-pended magnet is called the magnetic meridian

(B) A vertical plane passing through the axis of rotation of the Earth is called the geographi-cal meridian

(C) The degree to which the magnetic field can penetrate a medium, is known as the relative permeability of the medium

(D) The relative permeability is not a dimensionless quantity

62. If an object is placed at the centre of curvature of a concave mirror, the position of the image is—

(A) at the principal focus

(B) between the principal focus and the centre of curvature

(C) at the centre of curvature

(D) beyond the centre of curva-ture

63. The radius of curvature of a plane mirror—

(A) is zero

(B) is infinity

(C) can be anywhere between zero and infinity

(D) None of the above

64. A coin in a beaker filled with water appears raised. This phe-nomenon occurs because of the property of—

(A) reflection of light

(B) refraction of light

(C) total internal reflection of light

(D) interference of light

65. A ray of light falls on a trans-parent glass plate. A part of it is reflected and a part is refracted. The reflected and refracted rays can be perpendicular to each other for—

(A) angle of incidence equal to 90∞

(B) angle of incidence equal to zero

(C) only one angle of incidence

(D) more than one angle of incidence

66. A man with a dark skin, in com-parison with a man with a white skin, will experience—

(A) less heat and less cold

(B) less heat and more cold

(C) more heat and less cold

(D) more heat and more cold

67. Which one among the following denotes the lowest tempera-ture ?

(A) 1∞ on the Celsius scale

(B) 1∞ on the Kelvin scale

(C) 1∞ on the Fahrenheit scale

(D) 1∞ on the Reaumur scale

68. A particle oscillates in one dimension about the equilibrium position subject to a force Fx (x) that has an associated potential energy U (x). If k is the force con-stant, which one of the following relations is true ?

(A) Fx (x) = – kx2

(B) Fx (x) = – kx

(C) U (x) = kx

(D) U (x) = k2 x

69. When a body moves with simple harmonic motion, then the phase difference between the velocity and the acceleration is—

(A) 0∞ (B) 90∞

(C) 180∞ (D) 270∞

70. A body is thrown vertically upwards and then falls back on the ground. Its potential energy is maximum—

(A) on the ground

(B) at the maximum height

(C) during the return journey

(D) both on the ground and at the maximum height

71. Mahatma Gandhi and Rabindranath Tagore did not define India as a ‘nation’, because they were—

(A) appreciative of cultural divisivenss

(B) opposed to the idea of homogeneity

(C) supportive of ‘oneness’

(D) critical of hegemonic culture

72. Socialism refers to—

(A) state-controlled economy

(B) liquidation of the bour-geoisie

(C) removal of peasantry from administration

(D) establishment of military dictatorship

73. According to Karl Marx, attain-ment of communism is possible only after—

(A) resolution of tension between the leader and led

(B) completion of permanent revolution

(C) emergence of exploitation-free society

(D) disappearance of difference between urban and rural areas

74. India’s ‘Look East Policy’—

1. was articulated during the reign of H. D. Deve Gowda as India’s Prime Minister.

2. is directed towards South-East Asian countries.

3. is about controlling ter­rorism.

4. seeks to develop a bond among various countries on the basis of economic cooperation.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

Codes :

(A) 1 and 2 (B) 2 and 3

(C) 2 and 4 (D) 3 and 4

75. Cloudy nights are warmer than clear nights because of—

(A) greenhouse effect

(B) depletion of ozone layer

(C) insolation

(D) terrestrial radiation

76. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists—

List-I

(Landform)

(a) Inselbergs

(b) Stalagmite

(c) Delta

(d) Moraines

List-II

(Agent of erosion / deposition)

1. River

2. Glacier

3. Underground water

4. Wind

Codes :

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) 4 2 1 3

(B) 3 1 2 4

(C) 1 2 3 4

(D) 4 3 1 2

77. If it is 12 noon in a city located on 90∞ W longitude, what would be the time in a city located on 105∞ W longitude ?

(A) 13 : 00 hours

(B) 12 : 30 hours

(C) 111: 30 hours

(D) 11 : 00 hours

78. As we proceed from equator to poles, the daily range of tempera-ture tends to—

(A) decrease (B) increase

(C) be constant (D) fluctuate

79. Doldrums are characterized by—

(A) uniform low pressure

(B) uniform high pressure

(C) high wind velocity

(D) low humidity

80. Glaciated regions are associated with—

(A) V-shaped valley

(B) U-shaped valley

(C) sand dunes

(D) stalactites

81. Which one of the following is generally found in sedimentary rocks ?

(A) Basalt

(B) Silica

(C) Shale

(D) Magnesium

82. The interval between two high tides is approximately—

(A) 4 hours (B) 6 hours

(C) 12 hours (D) 24 hours

83. Xerophytes thrive in—

(A) hot and arid condition

(B) cool and wet condition

(C) hot and wet condition

(D) cool and arid condition

84. Biodiversity is highest in—

(A) Tundra zone

(B) Prairie zone

(C) Torrid zone

(D) Tropic zone

85. Which of the following state-ments is/are correct ?

1. Lunar eclipse takes place when the Earth comes directly between the Sun and the Moon.

2. Solar eclipse happens when the Moon comes directly between the Sun and the Earth.

3. Lunar eclipse takes place when the Sun comes directly between the Earth and the Moon.

4. Solar eclipse happens when the Earth comes directly between the Sun and the Moon.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below—

Codes :

(A) 1, 2 and 3

(B) 3 and 4

(C) 1 and 2 only

(D) 2 only

86. Which of the following is/are instance(s) of violation of human rights ?

1. A person was detained by the security forces while going for casting vote in Parliamentary Election.

2. A civilian was killed by the army while undertaking combing operation.

Select the correct answer using the code given below—

Codes :

(A) 1 only

(B) 2 only

(C) Both 1 and 2

(D) Neither 1 nor 2

87. Consider the following para-graph about one of the prominent personalities of India and identify him/her using the code given below :

One of the founder members of the Progressive Artists Group, he/she painted several important series of paintings like the Mahabharata and Ramayana, Christ and the Lamb, Peace Doves, Women with Roosters and Mother Teresa. He/she made a symbolic film, Through the Eyes of a Painter, which won him/her the Golden Bear Award at the Berlin Film Festival.

Codes :

(A) Dhiraj Choudhury

(B) Satish Gujral

(C) M. F. Hussain

(D) Amrita Shergil

88. Operation Vajraprahar is the joint counter-terrorism exer­cise between Indian Army and—

(A) US Army

(B) Chinese Army

(C) Russian Army

(D) Nepalese Army

89. The notion of saptanga that was introduced in Arthashastra includes—

(A) kings, territory, administra-tion and treasury

(B) music, dance, ragas and wrestling

(C) ministers, civil servants, subalterns and those involved in espionage

(D) aristocrats, acharyas, traders and monks

90. The immediate cause of the revival of human rights in post-Second World War period was—

(A) massive loss of lives in the War

(B) nuclear bombing of Hiroshima and Nagasaki by the Americans

(C) growing knowledge of brutal atrocities of Nazis over the Jews

(D) emergence of Soviet Union as a Superpower

91. Which one of the following with regard to the Poona Pact, 1932 is not correct ?

(A) Adequate representation of depressed sections in govern-ment jobs

(B) Reservation of seats for the depressed classes in the provin-cial legislature

(C) Acceptance of joint elec-torate system

(D) Reservation of seats for the depressed classes in the central legislature

92. The Government of India Act, 1935 was based on—

(A) the principle of federation and parliamentary system

(B) the principle of secession of the British Indian provinces

(C) acceptance of independence of India

(D) acceptance of the idea of a Constituent Assembly to draft a Constitution

93. Which of the following state-ments with regard to freedom struggle are correct ?

1. The British rule could pre­vail in India on the basis of the consent or acquiescence of many sections of Indian people.

2. The social basis of the colonial regime was among the Zamindars and upper classes.

3. The Indian National Army forced the British to with-draw from India.

4. The Hindu Mahasabha sup­ported the partition of India.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below—

Codes :

(A) 1 and 2 only

(B) 2 and 3 only

(C) 3 and 4 only

(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

94. Which one of the following state-ments with regard to ‘Direct Action Day’ is correct ?

(A) Hasan Suhrawardy presided over the ‘Direct Action Day’

(B) ‘Direct Action’ took place in Delhi

(C) ‘Direct Action Day’ led to the Bihar riot

(D) ‘Direct Action’ was endorsed by the Congress Party

95. Planning in India drew on—

(A) the New Economic Pro-gramme of Lenin

(B) the Fabian Socialism of Sid-ney and Beatrice Webb

(C) the British welfare mecha-nism

(D) new democratic develop-ment packages

96. The Haripura Congress (1938) remains a milestone in Indian freedom struggle, because—

(A) it declared war on the British Empire

(B) it anointed Jawaharlal Nehru as the future Prime Minis-ter of India

(C) of the introduction of the idea of a planning commission

(D) of the acceptance of the Government of India Act, 1935 by the Congress

97. The Constitution (93rd Amend-ment) Act deals with—

(A) local self-government

(B) extension of reservation in educational institutions

(C) basic structure of the Con-stitution of India

(D) appointment of judges in the Supreme Court of India

98. Which of the following state-ments is/are not violative of the principle of federalism ?

1. The President of India takes over administration of provinces under the emer-gency provisions.

2. The Parliament of India has exclusive power to make any law with respect to any matter not enumerated in the Concurrent List or State List.

3. The distribution of powers between the Union and Pro-vinces is done through three different lists enumerated in the Constitution of India.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below—

Codes :

(A) 1 and 2 (B) 2 and 3

(C) 3 only (D) 1 and 3

99. Public Interest Litigation (PIL) may be linked with—

(A) judicial review

(B) judicial activism

(C) judicial intervention

(D) judicial sanctity

100. In Hind Swaraj, Mahatma Gandhi was critical of railways, because they are—

1. carriers of plague germs

2. instruments for frequency of famines

3. responsible for creating class division in the society

4. accident-prone

Select the correct answer using the codes given below—

Codes :

(A) 1, 2 and 3

(B) 1 and 2 only

(C) 2 and 3 only

(D) 1 and 4

Answers With Hints

1. (b) Density = [ML– 3]

Specific gravity is a mere ratio and has no dimensions.

2. (d)

3. (d) Let the number of bulbs of 60W is n

\ Total power of the bulbs

= n ¥ 60 W

P = V.i

fi n ¥ 60 = 240 ¥ 4

fi n = 16

4. (B) 5. (a) 6. (c) 7. (a) 8. (D)

9. (C) 10. (a) 11. (b) 12. (A) 13. (D)

14. (b) 15. (a) 16. (c) 17. (c) 18. (b)

19. (a) 20. (d) 21. (c) 22. (d) 23. (b)

24. (a) 25. (b) 26. (c) 27. (b) 28. (b)

29. (d) 30. (c) 31. (c) 32. (b) 33. (a)

34. (d) 35. (a) 36. (d) 37. (a) 38. (A)

39. (a) 40. (b) 41. (c) 42. (a) 43. (A)

44. (C) 45. (b) 46. (d) 47. (c) 48. (b)

49. (b) 50. (d) 51. (b) 52. (b)

53. (b) = + +

fi =

fi R =

54. (d) 55. (d) 56. (c) 57. (d) 58. (d)

59. (c) 60. (a) 61. (d) 62. (c) 63. (b)

64. (b) 65. (c) 66. (c) 67. (b) 68. (A)

69. (b) 70. (b) 71. (c) 72. (A) 73. (c)

74. (c) 75. (d) 76. (d) 77. (d) 78. (a)

79. (a) 80. (a) 81. (c) 82. (c) 83. (a)

84. (d) 85. (c) 86. (c) 87. (c) 88. (a)

89. (a) 90. (c) 91. (a) 92. (A) 93. (D)

94. (c) 95. (a) 96. (c) 97. (b) 98. (c)

99. (c) 100. (c)

UPSC NDA 2004 SOLVED PAPER
ENGLISH LANGUAGE

FILL IN THE BLANKS
Directions (For the following 6 items):
Each of the following Six sentences has a blank space
and four words or groups of words are given after the
sentence. Out of these four choices, select the word or group
of words which you consider the most appropriate for the
blank space and mark your choice on the Answer Sheet.
1. To the dismay of all the students, the class monitor
was _____berated by the Principal at a school assembly.
(a) critically
(b) ignominiously
(c) prudently
(d) fortuitously
2. All attempts to revive the fishing industry
were_____failure.
(a) foredoomed to
(b) heading at
(c) predicted for
(d) estimated to
3. There are_____parked outside than yesterday.
(a) fewer cars
(b) few cars
(c) less cars
(d) a small number of cars
4. The minister had to_____some awkward questions
from reporters.
(a) fend
(b) fend at
(c) fend out
(d) fend off
5. The_____of evidence was on the side of the plaintiff
since all but one of the witnesses testified that his story was
correct.
(a) propensity
(b) force
(c) preponderance
(d) brunt
6. Attention to detail is_____of a fine craftsman.
(a) hallmark (b) stamp
(c) seal of authority (d) authenticity
SPOTTING ERRORS
Directions (For the following 5 items):
(i) In this Section a number of sentences is given. The
sentences are underlined in three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c). Read each sentence to find out
whether there is an error in any underlined part. No sentence
has more than one error. When you find an error in any one
of the underlined parts (a), (b) or (c), indicate your response
on the separate Answer Sheet at the appropriate space. You
may feel that there is no error in a sentence. In that case letter
(d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
(ii) You are to indicate only one response for each item
in your Answer Sheet. (If you indicate more than one
response, your answer will be considered wrong.) Errors may
be in grammar, word usage or idioms. There may be a word
missing or there may be a word which should be removed.
(iii) You are not required to correct the error. You are
required only to indicate your response on the Answer Sheet.
Examples ‘P’ and ‘Q’ have been solved for you.
P. The young child(a) singed(b) a very sweet song.(c)
No error.(d)
Q. We worked(a) very hard(b) throughout the season.(c)
No error.(d)
Explanation:
In item P, the word ‘singed’ is wrong. The letter under
this part is (b); so (b) is the correct answer. Similarly, for item
Q, (d) is the correct answer, as the sentence does not contain
any error.
7. If it weren’t(a) for you,(b) I wouldn’t be alive
today.(c) No error.(d)
8. He looked like a lion(a) baulked from(b) its prey.(c)
No error.(d)
9. Widespread flooding(a) is effecting(b) large areas
of the villages.(c) No error.(d)
10. She regards(a) negotiating prices with customers(b)
as her special preserve.(c) No error.(d)
11. Often in political campaigns, a point is reached at
which(a) the candidates take out their gloves(b) and start
slugging with bare fists.(c) No error.(d)
SELECTING WORDS/PHRASES
Directions (For the following 5 items):
In the following passage at certain points, you are given
a choice of three words/phrases, underlined and marked (a),
(b), (c). Choose the best word/phrase out of the three and
indicate your choice in the relevant column of your Answer
Sheet.
Examples ‘K’ and ‘L’ have been solved for you.
K. The river has been (a) rising
(b) raising
(c) arising
all night.
L. We built the raft
(a) too strong
(b) very strong
(c) strong enough
to hold us.
Explanation:
Out of the list given in ‘K’, only ‘rising’ is the correct
answer because a river cannot be raised, it rises on its own.
So (a) is the correct answer for item ‘K’. For item ‘L’, (c) is the
correct answer.
Read the passage carefully before you make your choices.
It hasn’t worked
12. (a) by
(b) out
(c) off
that way. Indeed, the gaps between theory and reality are so
numerous that they
13. (a) raise
(b) arise
(c) rise
questions about how much, if at all, the theory will work in
the future. Americans projected their own experience onto
the rest of the world. If prosperity and material progress had
created political cohesion at home—binding together a large
and
14. (a) ethically diverse
(b) ethnically diverse
(c) ethnically wide
nation—it could do the same abroad. But this marriage
between economics and politics may be losing its power.
What seemed to be the ascendancy of American ideas
camouflaged new problems and conflicts. The theory may
have been
15. (a) better
(b) aptly
(c) much
suited to the cold war than its aftermath. The most
16. (a) conspicuous
(b) conscientious
(c) conscious
problem, of course, involves the outbreak of terrorism.
SYNONYMS
Directions (For the following 7 items):
Each of the following Seven items consists of a word in
capital letters, followed by four words or groups of words.
Select the word or group of words that is most similar in
meaning to the word in capital letters.
17. PROCRASTINATE
(a) Intimidate (b) Humiliate
(c) Predict (d) Postpone
18. ABOMINABLE
(a) Original (b) Detestable
(c) Preferable (d) Complimentary
19. RESCIND
(a) Cancel (b) Enjoy
(c) Praise (d) Receive
20. COLLATERAL
(a) Pathetic (b) Tiresome
(c) Guarantee (d) Magnanimous
21. KNAVE
(a) Novice (b) Dishonest
(c) Futuristic (d) Traditional
22. FINESSE
(a) Skill (b) Softness (c) Charm (d) Gist
23. ARDOUR
(a) Enthusiasm (b) Candidness
(c) Discipline (d) Fairness
ANTONYMS
Directions (For the following 7 items):
Each of the following Seven items consists of a word in
capital letters, followed by four words or groups of words.
Select the word or group of words that is furthest in meaning
to the word in capital letters.
24. SAGE
(a) Miser (b) Fool
(c) Traitor (d) Tyrant
25. FLEDGLING
(a) Adversary (b) Callow
(c) Social outcast (d) Experienced person
26. PREDILECTION
(a) Predicament (b) Afterthought
(c) Aversion (d) Postponement
27. HIDEBOUND
(a) Strong-willed (b) Open-minded
(c) Well-informed (d) Well-to-do
28. ADULATION
(a) Criticism (b) Purity
(c) Ambiguous (d) Accolades
29. ANIMATED
(a) Penetrating (b) Modern
(c) Dull (d) Similarity
30. ILLUSIVE
(a) Not brilliant (b) Not coherent
(c) Not deceptive (d) Not obvious
ORDERING OF SENTENCES
Directions (For the following 5 items):
In the following items each passage consists of six
sentences. The first sentence (S1) and the sixth sentence (S6)
are given in the beginning. The middle four sentences in
each have been removed and jumbled up. These are labelled
P, Q, R and S. You are required to find out the proper sequence
of the four sentences and mark accordingly on the Answer
Sheet.
Example ‘X’ has been solved for you.
X. S1 : There was a boy named Jack.
S6 : At last she turned him out of the house.
P : So the mother asked him to find work.
Q : They were very poor.
R : He lived with his mother.
S : But Jack refused to work.
The proper sequence should be:
(a) R Q P S (b) P Q R S
(c) Q P R S (d) R P S Q
Explanation:
The proper sequence in this example is R Q P S which is
marked by (a). Therefore, (a) is the correct answer.
31. S1 : A city tour organised by the airport got our
next vote.
S6 : “We can only grow in height as most of our
land is reclaimed from the mud brought from
neighbouring countries”, said Bernadette.
P : A bumboat ride through the Singapore River
gave us a vantage view of the country’s prized
possession of skyscrapers in the central
business district.
Q : The tour is very popular with transit
passengers and there are many such buses
doing the route.
R : We were greeted into an air-conditioned Volvo
bus with a bottle of chilled water.
S : On the drive through the ‘colonial heart’ of the
city, our guide, Bernadette, pointed out the
Parliament House, Supreme Court and City
Hall to us.
The proper sequence should be:
(a) R S Q P (b) P Q S R
(c) R Q S P (d) P S Q R
32. S1 : But Bhutan is a curious mix of modern and
the medieval.
S6 : His licence plate reads simply ‘BHUTAN’.
P : It was next to a speed limit sign : 8 km an hour.
Q : Even the king zips through in a navy blue
Toyota Land Cruiser.
R : I noticed a rusty sign for the Kit Kat chocolate
bar and realised it was the only advertisement
I had seen.
S : Yet in the cities, most middle class people drive
brand new Japanese cars.
The proper sequence should be:
(a) S Q R P (b) R P S Q
(c) S P R Q (d) R Q S P
33. S1 : His usually fretful features composed,
Javagal Srinath announced his retirement
from international cricket.
S6 : He finished with 236 wickets in 67 Tests and
315 in 229 One-day Internationals.
P : He had spent the early years of his 13-year
career sitting out nine Tests when he was at
his quickest, being reminded of everything he
was not.
Q : In a classic case of appreciating a good thing
when it is gone, the tributes poured in for
India’s most successful pace bowler after Kapil
Dev.
R : Not aggressive enough, not a non-vegetarian,
not an all-rounder.
S : Srinath soldiered on, whether wickets were flat
or causes lost, as they often were when India
toured.
The proper sequence should be:
(a) Q P R S (b) R S Q P
(c) Q S R P (d) R P Q S
34. S1 : However, the flower industry also has its
share of thorns.
S6 : Also, there are not tax concessions from the
government.
P : Most companies have to individually invest
in the transport, which is very costly.
Q : Then there are infrastructural bootlenecks—no
refrigerated transport or retail chains and
warehouses to store the highly perishable
commodity.
R : For one, it is extremely fragmented and
dominated by small players who don’t have
the financial muscle to expand the business.
S : Ferns & Petals claims to be the only flower
retailer with a multi-city presence in India.
The proper sequence should be:
(a) Q S R P (b) R P Q S
(c) Q P R S (d) R S Q P
35. S1 : One could well be forgiven for momentarily
confusing Spencer Plaza, Chennai, with a
Dubai Shopping Mall.
S6 : Sensing that healthcare plus tourism adds to
big opportunities, corporate hospitals, in
cooperation with tour operators, are promoting
India as a healthcare destination from the
Middle East to Far East.
P : Having satiated their shopping instincts, many
head back, not to a hotel, but to a hospital, and
to ailing relatives.
Q : Arabs pour in and out of trendy showrooms,
laden with bags full of branded clothes,
footwear and cosmetics.
R : It is a scenario being replicated across India.
S : For these are tourists with a difference, attracted
to India for its cutting edge medical expertise
more than its charms.
The proper sequence should be:
(a) Q P S R (b) S R Q P
(c) Q R S P (d) S P Q R
ORDERING OF WORDS IN A SENTENCE
Directions (For the following 5 items)
In the following items some parts of the sentence have
been jumbled up. You are required to re-arrange these parts
which are labelled P, Q, R and S to produce the correct
sentence. Choose the proper sequence and mark in your
Answer Sheet accordingly.
Example ‘Z’ has been solved for you.
Z. It is well known that the effect(P) is very bad(Q) on children(R) of cinema.(S)
The proper sequence should be:
(a) P S R Q (b) S P Q R
(c) S R P Q (d) Q S R P
Explanation:
The proper way of writing the sentence is ‘It is well
known that the effect of cinema on children is very bad.’ This
is indicated by the sequence P S R Q and so (a) is the correct
answer.
36. Brazil’s Guaranis from being Internet savvy(P) are
an ancient tribe who live in the country’s remote jungles,(Q)
excluded them(R) but that has not.(S)
The proper sequence should be:
(a) P S R Q (b) Q R S P
(c) P R S Q (d) Q S R P
37. A game host that could be used at the airport dutyfree
shops(P) and the winner walked away with(Q) shot out
ten witty questions(R) vouchers worth 200 Singapore
dollars.(S)
The proper sequence should be:
(a) P S Q R (b) R Q S P
(c) P Q S R (d) R S Q P
38. And while without adequate international
support(P) the US military has been forced into remaining in
Iraq(Q) the overthrow of Saddam Hussein may have been
quick,(R) longer than anticipated.(S)
The proper sequence should be:
(a) R S Q P (b) P Q S R
(c) R Q S P (d) P S Q R
39. The socialist philosophy as it is the market
philosophy(P) has been given a decent burial(Q) which is
the rage now(R) in political practice.(S)
The proper sequence should be:
(a) Q S P R (b) R P S Q
(c) Q P S R (d) R S P Q
40. It began as an officially sanctioned project, could
achieve as a nation(P) but turned into a mass movement and
an extraordinary act of faith,(Q) if it got its act together,(R)
which changed not just the lives of millions but the notions
of what India.(S)
The proper sequence should be:
(a) P S R Q (b) Q S R P
(c) P R S Q (d) Q R S P
COMPREHENSION
Directions (For the following 10 items):
In this Section you have Three short passages. After each
passage you will find several questions based on the passage.
First, read Passage—I, and answer the questions based on it.
Then go on to the other passages. You are required to select
your answers based on the contents of the passage and
opinion of the author only.
Examples ‘I’ and ‘J’ are solved for you.
PASSAGE
In our approach to life, be it pragmatic or otherwise, a
basic fact that confronts us squarely and unmistakably is the desire for peace, security and happiness. Different forms of
life at different levels of existence make up the teeming
denizens of this earth of ours. And, no matter whether they
belong to the higher groups such as human beings or to the
lower groups such as animals, all beings primarily seek peace,
comfort and security. Life is as dear to a mute creature as it
is to a man. Even the lowliest insect strives for protection
against dangers that threaten its life. Just as each one of us
wants to live and not to die, so do all other creatures.
I. The author’s main point is that:
(a) different forms of life are found on earth
(b) different levels of existence are possible in
nature
(c) peace and security are the chief goals of all
living beings
(d) even the weakest creature struggles to preserve
its life
J. Which one of the following assumptions or steps is
essential in developing the author’s position?
(a) All forms of life have a single overriding goal
(b) The will to survive of a creature is identified
with a desire for peace
(c) All beings are divided into higher and lower
groups
(d) A parallel is drawn between happiness and
life, and pain and death
Explanation:
I. The idea which represents the author’s main point is
‘peace and security are the chief goals of all living beings’,
which is response (c). So (c) is the correct answer.
J. The best assumption underlying the passage is ‘The
will to survive of a creature is identified with a desire for
peace’, which is response (b). So (b) is the correct answer.
PASSAGE—I
I was late bloomer and always envied those people who
stood out in high school, because I didn’t. I learned early on,
though, that it’s essential to set yourself apart from the group.
Life is one struggle after another to succeed, particularly when
you’re starting out. If your bio-data is sitting at the bottom
of a pile of junk mail, sometimes a distinctive approach will
get you noticed, especially if the competition is fierce.
Once, my partner Jerry and I asked the other freelance
writers of a TV serial what characters they hated to write for
the most. Everybody said the same thing—they disliked
writing for the minor characters because they felt that writing
for them wouldn’t help them get other jobs. Jerry and I
decided that we would write scripts for the minor characters
because that’s what was needed—and we needed to set
ourselves apart.
In the first script Jerry and I wrote, a schoolgirl falls in
love with a boy in her class. The producers loved the story.
And with that one script, Jerry and I were no longer just
another comedy-writing team.
41. The author is of the opinion that
(a) one should be part of the group
(b) one should be different from others (c) it is important to do well in high school
(d) one should heed to the advice of the seniors
42. The author had been
(a) into advertising business
(b) a comedy writer
(c) a music director
(d) a newsreader
43. According to the author
(a) one should be very meticulous in preparing
his bio-data
(b) competition in the job-market is very fierce
(c) One should follow a conservative approach in
preparing his bio-data
(d) one should try to get noticed by being
innovative
44. Jerry and the author wrote scripts for the minor
characters
(a) to realize their creative potential
(b) to earn more money
(c) to establish a different image
(d) because they did not have enough work
PASSAGE—II
Wind power has obvious advantages—it is nonpolluting,
causes no ecological imbalance, requires no
throughput fuel and has extremely low gestation period.
After almost a decade of sporadic growth, wind energy
finally seems to be stepping out from shadows of alternative
technology into the commercial mainstream, worldwide.
Even though, India now has an installed base of just over
1,600 MW. This is nothing compared to countries such as
Germany, which meets around 20 per cent of its energy
requirements from wind energy.
Wind power offers long-term price stability too. Not only
are generation costs of such projects low, the capital
expenditure is comparable to fossil fuel-based stations. Windpower
plants have low operating and maintenance costs.
Long-term economics work out to be quite favourable for the
wind-energy. In fact, it is being seen as a solution to
sustainable development. By the end of 2001, the installed
wind-power was almost 25,000 MW.
45. Which one of the following is correct?
(a) Wind-power plants take a long time to get
commissioned.
(b) Maintenance cost of wind-power plants is high.
(c) Wind-power plants lead to violent vibrations.
(d) Wind-power plants require no fuel.
46. Which one of the following is correct?
(a) Installation of wind-power plants is resisted
by environmentalists.
(b) Generation cost of wind-power plants is high.
(c) Installation cost of wind-power plants is much
higher than that of fossil fuel-based plants.
(d) Wind-power is now being commercially
harnessed.
47. Which one of the following is correct?
(a) In Germany, 25,000 MW of electricity is Wind-power plants offer no price stability.
(c) Wind-power is economically viable on longterm
basis.
(d) In America, 20% of the power requirements
are met through wind-power.
PASSAGE—III
A group of prospective jurors was asked by the judge
whether any of them felt they had ever been treated unfairly
by an officer of the law. “I once got a ticket for running a stop
sign”, Caroline replied, ”even though I definitely came to a
complete stop.”
“Did you pay the fine?” the judge questioned.
“Yes”.
“If you thought you were innocent”, the judge went on,
“why didn’t you contest it?”
“Your Honour”, she replied, “there have been so many
times I didn’t get a ticket for running a stop sign that I figured
this evened things out a little.”
48. Which one of the following is correct?
(a) Caroline was caught travelling without ticket
in a local train.
(b) Caroline was caught while driving at a speed
above the speed limit.
(c) Caroline was driving without a driving license.
(d) Caroline was fined for jumping the stop signal.
49. Which one of the following is correct?
(a) Caroline made a complaint against the traffic
inspector for his high-handedness.
(b) Caroline had to pay a bribe.
(c) Caroline was sent to the jail for her crime.
(d) Caroline decided to pay the fine.
50. Which one of the following is correct?
(a) Caroline had been penalised many times before
for driving offences.
(b) Caroline was an officer of the law.
(c) Caroline was a prospective juror.
(d) Caroline was undergoing police training.

ANSWERS

1. (b) 2. (a) 3. (a) 4. (d)
5. (b) 6. (a) 7. (b) ‘you’
8. (b) ‘baulked at’ 9. (b) ‘is affecting’
10. (d) No error
11. (a) ‘.....a point is reached where’
12. (b)
13. (a) 14. (b) 15. (a) 16. (a)
17. (d) 18. (b) 19. (a) 20. (c)
21. (b) 22. (a) 23. (a) 24. (b)
25. (d) 26. (c) 27. (b) 28. (a)
29. (c) 30. (c) 31. (a) 32. (c)
33. (a) 34. (d) 35. (a) 36. (d)
37. (b) 38. (c) 39. (a) 40. (d)
41. (b) 42. (b) 43. (d) 44. (c)
45. (d) 46. (d) 47. (c) 48. (d)
49. (d) 50. (c)


**********************************************
Previous Exam/Solved Papers of NATIONAL DEFENCE ACADEMY EXAM.-2004(English)*******************************
******************************************
FILL IN THE BLANKS
Directions (For the following 6 items):
Each of the following Six sentences has a blank space
and four words or groups of words are given after the
sentence. Out of these four choices, select the word or group
of words which you consider the most appropriate for the
blank space and mark your choice on the Answer Sheet.
1. To the dismay of all the students, the class monitor
was _____berated by the Principal at a school assembly.
(a) critically
(b) ignominiously
(c) prudently
(d) fortuitously
2. All attempts to revive the fishing industry
were_____failure.
(a) foredoomed to
(b) heading at
(c) predicted for
(d) estimated to
3. There are_____parked outside than yesterday.
(a) fewer cars
(b) few cars
(c) less cars
(d) a small number of cars
4. The minister had to_____some awkward questions
from reporters.
(a) fend
(b) fend at
(c) fend out
(d) fend off
5. The_____of evidence was on the side of the plaintiff
since all but one of the witnesses testified that his story was
correct.
(a) propensity
(b) force
(c) preponderance
(d) brunt
6. Attention to detail is_____of a fine craftsman.
(a) hallmark (b) stamp
(c) seal of authority (d) authenticity
SPOTTING ERRORS
Directions (For the following 5 items):
(i) In this Section a number of sentences is given. The
sentences are underlined in three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c). Read each sentence to find out
whether there is an error in any underlined part. No sentence
has more than one error. When you find an error in any one
of the underlined parts (a), (b) or (c), indicate your response
on the separate Answer Sheet at the appropriate space. You
may feel that there is no error in a sentence. In that case letter
(d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
(ii) You are to indicate only one response for each item
in your Answer Sheet. (If you indicate more than one
response, your answer will be considered wrong.) Errors may
be in grammar, word usage or idioms. There may be a word
missing or there may be a word which should be removed.
(iii) You are not required to correct the error. You are
required only to indicate your response on the Answer Sheet.
Examples ‘P’ and ‘Q’ have been solved for you.
P. The young child(a) singed(b) a very sweet song.(c)
No error.(d)
Q. We worked(a) very hard(b) throughout the season.(c)
No error.(d)
Explanation:
In item P, the word ‘singed’ is wrong. The letter under
this part is (b); so (b) is the correct answer. Similarly, for item
Q, (d) is the correct answer, as the sentence does not contain
any error.
7. If it weren’t(a) for you,(b) I wouldn’t be alive
today.(c) No error.(d)
8. He looked like a lion(a) baulked from(b) its prey.(c)
No error.(d)
9. Widespread flooding(a) is effecting(b) large areas
of the villages.(c) No error.(d)
10. She regards(a) negotiating prices with customers(b)
as her special preserve.(c) No error.(d)
11. Often in political campaigns, a point is reached at
which(a) the candidates take out their gloves(b) and start
slugging with bare fists.(c) No error.(d)
SELECTING WORDS/PHRASES
Directions (For the following 5 items):
In the following passage at certain points, you are given
a choice of three words/phrases, underlined and marked (a),
(b), (c). Choose the best word/phrase out of the three and
indicate your choice in the relevant column of your Answer
Sheet.
Examples ‘K’ and ‘L’ have been solved for you.
K. The river has been (a) rising
(b) raising
(c) arising
all night.
L. We built the raft
(a) too strong
(b) very strong
(c) strong enough
to hold us.
Explanation:
Out of the list given in ‘K’, only ‘rising’ is the correct
answer because a river cannot be raised, it rises on its own.
So (a) is the correct answer for item ‘K’. For item ‘L’, (c) is the
correct answer.
Read the passage carefully before you make your choices.
It hasn’t worked
12. (a) by
(b) out
(c) off
that way. Indeed, the gaps between theory and reality are so
numerous that they
13. (a) raise
(b) arise
(c) rise
questions about how much, if at all, the theory will work in
the future. Americans projected their own experience onto
the rest of the world. If prosperity and material progress had
created political cohesion at home—binding together a large
and
14. (a) ethically diverse
(b) ethnically diverse
(c) ethnically wide
nation—it could do the same abroad. But this marriage
between economics and politics may be losing its power.
What seemed to be the ascendancy of American ideas
camouflaged new problems and conflicts. The theory may
have been
15. (a) better
(b) aptly
(c) much
suited to the cold war than its aftermath. The most
16. (a) conspicuous
(b) conscientious
(c) conscious
problem, of course, involves the outbreak of terrorism.
SYNONYMS
Directions (For the following 7 items):
Each of the following Seven items consists of a word in
capital letters, followed by four words or groups of words.
Select the word or group of words that is most similar in
meaning to the word in capital letters.
17. PROCRASTINATE
(a) Intimidate (b) Humiliate
(c) Predict (d) Postpone
18. ABOMINABLE
(a) Original (b) Detestable
(c) Preferable (d) Complimentary
19. RESCIND
(a) Cancel (b) Enjoy
(c) Praise (d) Receive
20. COLLATERAL
(a) Pathetic (b) Tiresome
(c) Guarantee (d) Magnanimous
21. KNAVE
(a) Novice (b) Dishonest
(c) Futuristic (d) Traditional
22. FINESSE
(a) Skill (b) Softness (c) Charm (d) Gist
23. ARDOUR
(a) Enthusiasm (b) Candidness
(c) Discipline (d) Fairness
ANTONYMS
Directions (For the following 7 items):
Each of the following Seven items consists of a word in
capital letters, followed by four words or groups of words.
Select the word or group of words that is furthest in meaning
to the word in capital letters.
24. SAGE
(a) Miser (b) Fool
(c) Traitor (d) Tyrant
25. FLEDGLING
(a) Adversary (b) Callow
(c) Social outcast (d) Experienced person
26. PREDILECTION
(a) Predicament (b) Afterthought
(c) Aversion (d) Postponement
27. HIDEBOUND
(a) Strong-willed (b) Open-minded
(c) Well-informed (d) Well-to-do
28. ADULATION
(a) Criticism (b) Purity
(c) Ambiguous (d) Accolades
29. ANIMATED
(a) Penetrating (b) Modern
(c) Dull (d) Similarity
30. ILLUSIVE
(a) Not brilliant (b) Not coherent
(c) Not deceptive (d) Not obvious
ORDERING OF SENTENCES
Directions (For the following 5 items):
In the following items each passage consists of six
sentences. The first sentence (S1) and the sixth sentence (S6)
are given in the beginning. The middle four sentences in
each have been removed and jumbled up. These are labelled
P, Q, R and S. You are required to find out the proper sequence
of the four sentences and mark accordingly on the Answer
Sheet.
Example ‘X’ has been solved for you.
X. S1 : There was a boy named Jack.
S6 : At last she turned him out of the house.
P : So the mother asked him to find work.
Q : They were very poor.
R : He lived with his mother.
S : But Jack refused to work.
The proper sequence should be:
(a) R Q P S (b) P Q R S
(c) Q P R S (d) R P S Q
Explanation:
The proper sequence in this example is R Q P S which is
marked by (a). Therefore, (a) is the correct answer.
31. S1 : A city tour organised by the airport got our
next vote.
S6 : “We can only grow in height as most of our
land is reclaimed from the mud brought from
neighbouring countries”, said Bernadette.
P : A bumboat ride through the Singapore River
gave us a vantage view of the country’s prized
possession of skyscrapers in the central
business district.
Q : The tour is very popular with transit
passengers and there are many such buses
doing the route.
R : We were greeted into an air-conditioned Volvo
bus with a bottle of chilled water.
S : On the drive through the ‘colonial heart’ of the
city, our guide, Bernadette, pointed out the
Parliament House, Supreme Court and City
Hall to us.
The proper sequence should be:
(a) R S Q P (b) P Q S R
(c) R Q S P (d) P S Q R
32. S1 : But Bhutan is a curious mix of modern and
the medieval.
S6 : His licence plate reads simply ‘BHUTAN’.
P : It was next to a speed limit sign : 8 km an hour.
Q : Even the king zips through in a navy blue
Toyota Land Cruiser.
R : I noticed a rusty sign for the Kit Kat chocolate
bar and realised it was the only advertisement
I had seen.
S : Yet in the cities, most middle class people drive
brand new Japanese cars.
The proper sequence should be:
(a) S Q R P (b) R P S Q
(c) S P R Q (d) R Q S P
33. S1 : His usually fretful features composed,
Javagal Srinath announced his retirement
from international cricket.
S6 : He finished with 236 wickets in 67 Tests and
315 in 229 One-day Internationals.
P : He had spent the early years of his 13-year
career sitting out nine Tests when he was at
his quickest, being reminded of everything he
was not.
Q : In a classic case of appreciating a good thing
when it is gone, the tributes poured in for
India’s most successful pace bowler after Kapil
Dev.
R : Not aggressive enough, not a non-vegetarian,
not an all-rounder.
S : Srinath soldiered on, whether wickets were flat
or causes lost, as they often were when India
toured.
The proper sequence should be:
(a) Q P R S (b) R S Q P
(c) Q S R P (d) R P Q S
34. S1 : However, the flower industry also has its
share of thorns.
S6 : Also, there are not tax concessions from the
government.
P : Most companies have to individually invest
in the transport, which is very costly.
Q : Then there are infrastructural bootlenecks—no
refrigerated transport or retail chains and
warehouses to store the highly perishable
commodity.
R : For one, it is extremely fragmented and
dominated by small players who don’t have
the financial muscle to expand the business.
S : Ferns & Petals claims to be the only flower
retailer with a multi-city presence in India.
The proper sequence should be:
(a) Q S R P (b) R P Q S
(c) Q P R S (d) R S Q P
35. S1 : One could well be forgiven for momentarily
confusing Spencer Plaza, Chennai, with a
Dubai Shopping Mall.
S6 : Sensing that healthcare plus tourism adds to
big opportunities, corporate hospitals, in
cooperation with tour operators, are promoting
India as a healthcare destination from the
Middle East to Far East.
P : Having satiated their shopping instincts, many
head back, not to a hotel, but to a hospital, and
to ailing relatives.
Q : Arabs pour in and out of trendy showrooms,
laden with bags full of branded clothes,
footwear and cosmetics.
R : It is a scenario being replicated across India.
S : For these are tourists with a difference, attracted
to India for its cutting edge medical expertise
more than its charms.
The proper sequence should be:
(a) Q P S R (b) S R Q P
(c) Q R S P (d) S P Q R
ORDERING OF WORDS IN A SENTENCE
Directions (For the following 5 items)
In the following items some parts of the sentence have
been jumbled up. You are required to re-arrange these parts
which are labelled P, Q, R and S to produce the correct
sentence. Choose the proper sequence and mark in your
Answer Sheet accordingly.
Example ‘Z’ has been solved for you.
Z. It is well known that the effect(P) is very bad(Q) on children(R) of cinema.(S)
The proper sequence should be:
(a) P S R Q (b) S P Q R
(c) S R P Q (d) Q S R P
Explanation:
The proper way of writing the sentence is ‘It is well
known that the effect of cinema on children is very bad.’ This
is indicated by the sequence P S R Q and so (a) is the correct
answer.
36. Brazil’s Guaranis from being Internet savvy(P) are
an ancient tribe who live in the country’s remote jungles,(Q)
excluded them(R) but that has not.(S)
The proper sequence should be:
(a) P S R Q (b) Q R S P
(c) P R S Q (d) Q S R P
37. A game host that could be used at the airport dutyfree
shops(P) and the winner walked away with(Q) shot out
ten witty questions(R) vouchers worth 200 Singapore
dollars.(S)
The proper sequence should be:
(a) P S Q R (b) R Q S P
(c) P Q S R (d) R S Q P
38. And while without adequate international
support(P) the US military has been forced into remaining in
Iraq(Q) the overthrow of Saddam Hussein may have been
quick,(R) longer than anticipated.(S)
The proper sequence should be:
(a) R S Q P (b) P Q S R
(c) R Q S P (d) P S Q R
39. The socialist philosophy as it is the market
philosophy(P) has been given a decent burial(Q) which is
the rage now(R) in political practice.(S)
The proper sequence should be:
(a) Q S P R (b) R P S Q
(c) Q P S R (d) R S P Q
40. It began as an officially sanctioned project, could
achieve as a nation(P) but turned into a mass movement and
an extraordinary act of faith,(Q) if it got its act together,(R)
which changed not just the lives of millions but the notions
of what India.(S)
The proper sequence should be:
(a) P S R Q (b) Q S R P
(c) P R S Q (d) Q R S P
COMPREHENSION
Directions (For the following 10 items):
In this Section you have Three short passages. After each
passage you will find several questions based on the passage.
First, read Passage—I, and answer the questions based on it.
Then go on to the other passages. You are required to select
your answers based on the contents of the passage and
opinion of the author only.
Examples ‘I’ and ‘J’ are solved for you.
PASSAGE
In our approach to life, be it pragmatic or otherwise, a
basic fact that confronts us squarely and unmistakably is the desire for peace, security and happiness. Different forms of
life at different levels of existence make up the teeming
denizens of this earth of ours. And, no matter whether they
belong to the higher groups such as human beings or to the
lower groups such as animals, all beings primarily seek peace,
comfort and security. Life is as dear to a mute creature as it
is to a man. Even the lowliest insect strives for protection
against dangers that threaten its life. Just as each one of us
wants to live and not to die, so do all other creatures.
I. The author’s main point is that:
(a) different forms of life are found on earth
(b) different levels of existence are possible in
nature
(c) peace and security are the chief goals of all
living beings
(d) even the weakest creature struggles to preserve
its life
J. Which one of the following assumptions or steps is
essential in developing the author’s position?
(a) All forms of life have a single overriding goal
(b) The will to survive of a creature is identified
with a desire for peace
(c) All beings are divided into higher and lower
groups
(d) A parallel is drawn between happiness and
life, and pain and death
Explanation:
I. The idea which represents the author’s main point is
‘peace and security are the chief goals of all living beings’,
which is response (c). So (c) is the correct answer.
J. The best assumption underlying the passage is ‘The
will to survive of a creature is identified with a desire for
peace’, which is response (b). So (b) is the correct answer.
PASSAGE—I
I was late bloomer and always envied those people who
stood out in high school, because I didn’t. I learned early on,
though, that it’s essential to set yourself apart from the group.
Life is one struggle after another to succeed, particularly when
you’re starting out. If your bio-data is sitting at the bottom
of a pile of junk mail, sometimes a distinctive approach will
get you noticed, especially if the competition is fierce.
Once, my partner Jerry and I asked the other freelance
writers of a TV serial what characters they hated to write for
the most. Everybody said the same thing—they disliked
writing for the minor characters because they felt that writing
for them wouldn’t help them get other jobs. Jerry and I
decided that we would write scripts for the minor characters
because that’s what was needed—and we needed to set
ourselves apart.
In the first script Jerry and I wrote, a schoolgirl falls in
love with a boy in her class. The producers loved the story.
And with that one script, Jerry and I were no longer just
another comedy-writing team.
41. The author is of the opinion that
(a) one should be part of the group
(b) one should be different from others (c) it is important to do well in high school
(d) one should heed to the advice of the seniors
42. The author had been
(a) into advertising business
(b) a comedy writer
(c) a music director
(d) a newsreader
43. According to the author
(a) one should be very meticulous in preparing
his bio-data
(b) competition in the job-market is very fierce
(c) One should follow a conservative approach in
preparing his bio-data
(d) one should try to get noticed by being
innovative
44. Jerry and the author wrote scripts for the minor
characters
(a) to realize their creative potential
(b) to earn more money
(c) to establish a different image
(d) because they did not have enough work
PASSAGE—II
Wind power has obvious advantages—it is nonpolluting,
causes no ecological imbalance, requires no
throughput fuel and has extremely low gestation period.
After almost a decade of sporadic growth, wind energy
finally seems to be stepping out from shadows of alternative
technology into the commercial mainstream, worldwide.
Even though, India now has an installed base of just over
1,600 MW. This is nothing compared to countries such as
Germany, which meets around 20 per cent of its energy
requirements from wind energy.
Wind power offers long-term price stability too. Not only
are generation costs of such projects low, the capital
expenditure is comparable to fossil fuel-based stations. Windpower
plants have low operating and maintenance costs.
Long-term economics work out to be quite favourable for the
wind-energy. In fact, it is being seen as a solution to
sustainable development. By the end of 2001, the installed
wind-power was almost 25,000 MW.
45. Which one of the following is correct?
(a) Wind-power plants take a long time to get
commissioned.
(b) Maintenance cost of wind-power plants is high.
(c) Wind-power plants lead to violent vibrations.
(d) Wind-power plants require no fuel.
46. Which one of the following is correct?
(a) Installation of wind-power plants is resisted
by environmentalists.
(b) Generation cost of wind-power plants is high.
(c) Installation cost of wind-power plants is much
higher than that of fossil fuel-based plants.
(d) Wind-power is now being commercially
harnessed.
47. Which one of the following is correct?
(a) In Germany, 25,000 MW of electricity is Wind-power plants offer no price stability.
(c) Wind-power is economically viable on longterm
basis.
(d) In America, 20% of the power requirements
are met through wind-power.
PASSAGE—III
A group of prospective jurors was asked by the judge
whether any of them felt they had ever been treated unfairly
by an officer of the law. “I once got a ticket for running a stop
sign”, Caroline replied, ”even though I definitely came to a
complete stop.”
“Did you pay the fine?” the judge questioned.
“Yes”.
“If you thought you were innocent”, the judge went on,
“why didn’t you contest it?”
“Your Honour”, she replied, “there have been so many
times I didn’t get a ticket for running a stop sign that I figured
this evened things out a little.”
48. Which one of the following is correct?
(a) Caroline was caught travelling without ticket
in a local train.
(b) Caroline was caught while driving at a speed
above the speed limit.
(c) Caroline was driving without a driving license.
(d) Caroline was fined for jumping the stop signal.
49. Which one of the following is correct?
(a) Caroline made a complaint against the traffic
inspector for his high-handedness.
(b) Caroline had to pay a bribe.
(c) Caroline was sent to the jail for her crime.
(d) Caroline decided to pay the fine.
50. Which one of the following is correct?
(a) Caroline had been penalised many times before
for driving offences.
(b) Caroline was an officer of the law.
(c) Caroline was a prospective juror.
(d) Caroline was undergoing police training.

ANSWERS

1. (b) 2. (a) 3. (a) 4. (d)
5. (b) 6. (a) 7. (b) ‘you’
8. (b) ‘baulked at’ 9. (b) ‘is affecting’
10. (d) No error
11. (a) ‘.....a point is reached where’
12. (b)
13. (a) 14. (b) 15. (a) 16. (a)
17. (d) 18. (b) 19. (a) 20. (c)
21. (b) 22. (a) 23. (a) 24. (b)
25. (d) 26. (c) 27. (b) 28. (a)
29. (c) 30. (c) 31. (a) 32. (c)
33. (a) 34. (d) 35. (a) 36. (d)
37. (b) 38. (c) 39. (a) 40. (d)
41. (b) 42. (b) 43. (d) 44. (c)
45. (d) 46. (d) 47. (c) 48. (d)
49. (d) 50. (c)

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