Solved SAIL(MT) Exam Paper for All Branches

Published by Roma Rahul Gupta for Chhattisgarh Online
Solved SAIL(MT) Exam Paper for All Branches
1.Aptitude in that they have asked most of the questions from percentage , profit and loss , problems on train , Simple Interest, Compound Interest, Calender, Age problems, Time and Work ,H.C.F & L.C.F, average, square roots, Decimal Fractions, Discount problems, Odd man out and series. Hey friends just go through the R.S AGGARWAL.


2.Verbal in that they have asked for meanings, opposites, appropriate words, Passages, analogy, relationships, Coding and decoding ,cubes and dice, statement and conclusions, Mirror images, Alphabet test, Mathematical Operations, Data sufficiency. follow Verbal and NON-verbal Reasoning by R.S AGGARWAL.


3.General Awareness this all about general knowledge test of the student. So try to refer some G.K general questions like some quotations given by great people like Mahatma Gandhi they will give some quotation n they will ask who said this quotation like that, next O2 is carried out by red blood cells n some on nature n some n history n some on current affairs n some on politics n some on food products like that so try to know some general questions.


4.Technical Test In this they will ask about subject
SAIL is having five section - Reasoning ( 45 ) , Quanti. ques.( 35 ), Genral knowledge ( 35 ), English Comp ( 35 )., Technical Question ( 100 ).
In previos year their is some change in no of questions.
And total time given is 2 hour 25 minutes....
Their is not saparate time given for saperate sections, all section have to solve in 2:25 hour, but individual cuttoff is their ....
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Section FIRST - REASONING ( 45 )
This is vry easy to solve and I suggest to solve as many as possible becoz easy to solve and efficiency is above 90 %.
type of question...
Family relation - one question - "A person looking at portral and said that ' his mother is wife of my father .I m only child of my father' what is relation between them "
five question - " A, B ,C, D, E ,F are five , A is ..., B is ...and so on " a very well known question belong to R.S.Agrawal " and five easy question based on that.
DIsc problem - one question - " two diagram was given and ask that no of dots opposite to one dots " vry simple ...
Sitting Arrengment - five question based on sitting arrengment that was a little time taking but easy to solve.
Syllogism - four to five question based on that in which statment and conclusion was given and have to solved.
Odd one out - one are two odd one out type but question was too easy and must be tried.
Venn Diagram - four question from R.S.agrawal " Square represent girls, square rep. sportperson , circle rep. coach and question based on that".
LR - some question are based on that but vry easy to solve.
Direction finding - one or two question based on that...
Over all this section was thats most scoring section and i must suggest you to prepair that esay and score most in that.....
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Section SECOND - QUANTI.. ( 35 )
In quanti. the question of starting are easy to solve and question after 15 in quanti. is a little bit tough as compare to starting....
Quanti portion consist of work and energy, pipe line problem, up and downword water stream problem, profit and loss, ratio propertion which are common in any exam.
Lenghty as compare to reasoning problems.
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Section THIRD - GENRAL AWARNESS. ( 35 )
This portion is as usual not easy and a lot of luck is required......
their is question mainly form
History - (' who fight the third panipath war' , and so on.......)
Geography - (' india and pak border is name as ', and one form such border problem....
Author - their is three question related to book and authors (' who the writer of Harry Porter'........etc
Regional dance - (' Given some name and asked that name belong to what field' )
Sports - (' Wimbuldon belong to which games' )
and such type of GK...
i prefered you to read some important event of History, Sports knowledge, some famous person name and feild knowledge etc....
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Section FOURTH - ENGLISH. ( 35 )
This section will have five antonisms, ten find the error is sentence, two para. reading each having 5 question, five to seven find best meaning ...
antonism and synonims are quite unknown section and i faced some difficulty in it, else section 'error and reading' was easy to solve .....
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Section FIVETH - TECHNICAL QUESTION. ( 100 )


GK papers
GK section


galvanization------------------------zinc
tounge--------------------------------middle portion
testtube baby-----------------------inside mother's..........
oldest veda--------------------------rig veda
small state--------------------------- sikkim
joint house----------------------------the president
clay court-------------------------------french open
Which is required for coagulation of blood------Calcium
Where does protein synthesis in cell-----ribosomes
Which state has the least population growth rate in 2001 census:--Kerala
tropic cancer donot pass----------------------rajasthan(not sure)
blood coagulation-------------------------------calcium
clay court-----------------------------------------french open
Which of the following is the smallest state:
1)manipur 2)nagland
3) mizoram
Through which state tropic of cancer doesn't pass?
1)rajasthan 2) uttarakhand
3)MP 4)UP ans 1
last guru of skikhs
principle on which jet engine's angular moment is based a. newton's third law
national flag is designed by pingali venkayya...
sudden death is associated with football and hockey(!!)....
jet plane follows the principle of Newtpn's third law....
Under whos superivision bengal act passed--Lord cornawallis
first layer of protection in human body –skin
land locked country---ans laos
who among the following 1st started census in india ?
a)lord cornwallis b) lord warren hastings c) lord rippon
ans:-c
colour of star is due to 1)color 2)radiation ans 2
stem----------------------sugarcane
proteins------------------ribosome
alexander visited during---chandragupta maurya , NANDAS
intrument used to measure milk purity –lactometer
which among the following river has no delta..
a) ganga b) mahanadi c) narmada
ans:-c
what is sellers market?
ans demand is more tha supply
Young Camel is called calf
1. who heads the joint session of Parilament i.e Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha?
34. Council of Ministers are responsible to who among the following ?
a) President b) Prime minister, c) vice president d) Speaker
35. Free Trade Port ------> Kandla port
gk question


1) olympic 2010 held in------london


2) Currency of Bhutan-------NUGULTRAM


3) Measles is a type of--------VIRUS


4) Heart beat of Adult---------72


5) Heavy, strongest and long bone of body------FEMUR


6) JIm Corbet national park-------------Uttarnchal


7) Rupess symbol designed by-------D. UDAY KUMAR


8) Durand line is Between--------pak & afganistan


9) Winner of 20-20 world cup-----------england


10) winner of Rajiv gandhi khel rattan award-2010---------saina Nehwal


11) which river falls in arbian SEA--------------tapi


12) BIHU is a folk dance of-----------assam


13) budh name------------sidhart


14) brahm smaaj----------raja ram mohan roi


15) company related to insurance---------------IRDA


16) gadar movement telated with------------------hardyal singh


17) new member of SAARA------------------afganistan


18) olive branch signify----------------------PEACE


19) language under 8th schedual----------------22


20) alpha keratin protien present in-------------------FIBER


21) Which state receieve winter rainfall by western disturbance------Tamilnadu


22) equality of oppertunity of all citizen in matter of public employement come under------ART 16


23) Kailasa temple-----------ajanta


24) EX-office planning commision------------Prime minister


25) Most dense populated state.................UP
*****************************************
1. Which of the following is not a rabi crop?

(a) Wheat

(b) Barley

(c) Jute

(d) Rapeseed

Ans. (c)


2. Blue Revolution is associated with

(a) Fish

(b) Milk

(c) flower

(d) Litmus

Ans. (a)

3. Study the following features of farming in India:

1. The farmers voluntarily pool their land together cultivation.

2. They divide the produce in proportion to the land pooled.


3. They forego their proprietary rights in the land.

4. They cannot withdraw their land from the pool after due notice and paying for the improvements.

Which of these features belong to cooperative farming?

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 1 and 3

(c) 2 and 4

(d) 3 and 4

Ans. (a)

4. Which of the following states is the main producer of Tendu Leaves?


(a) Orissa

(b) Madhya Pradesh

(c) Maharashtra

(c) Uttar Pradesh

Ans. (b)

5. The largest food crop of India is

(a) wheat

(b) rice


(c) maize

(d) gram

Ans. (b)

6. The maximum edible oil in India is produced from

(a) Rapeseed and mustard

(b) Til

(c) Sunflower

(d) Groundnut


Ans. (d)

7. Tobacco cultivated in Gujarat is mostly used for the manufacture of

(a) beedi

(b) cigarette

(c) zarda

(d) snuff powder

Ans. (a)

8. India is the largest producer of

(a) tobacco


(b) sugar

(c) tea

(d) rice

Ans. (c)

9. Rubber plantations are located mostly in

(a) Kerala and Karnataka

(b) Karnataka and Tamil Nadu

(c) Maharashtra and Kerala


(4) West Bengal and Kerala

Ans. (a)

10. Food grain production of India in million tones is nearest to the figure of

(a) 120

(b) 150

(c) 200

(d) 280

Ans. (c)


11. Self sufficiency in food, in the true sense of freedom from hunger, has not been achieved in India inspite of a more than three-fold rise in food grains production over 1950-1990. Which of the following are reason for it?

1. The Green Revolution has been restricted to small pockets of the country.

2. The cost of food is too high compared to the earnings of the poor.

3. Too much emphasis is laid on what and paddy compared to the coarse grains.

4. The gains of the green revolution have largely accrued to the cash crop rather than food crops.

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(c) l, 3 and 4

(b) 1, 2 and 4

(d) 2, 3 and 4


Ans. (a)

12. The state which is known as the ‘Granary of India’ is

(a) Kerala

(b) U.P

(c) Haryana

(d) Punjab

Ans. (d)


13. Which of the following states is the Leading producer of tobacco?

(a) Tamil Nadu

(b) Karnataka

(c) Maharashtra

(d) Andhra Pradesh

Ans. (c)

14. Which of the following is the most important cash crop of West Bengal?

(a) Tea


(b) Jute

(c) Arecanut

(d) Coffee

(e) None of these

Ans. (b)

15. Sowing season for kharif crop is

(a) February-March

(b) June -July

(c) August –September


(d) October -December

Ans. (b)

16. Which one of the following crop combinations is characteristic of the upper Bhramaputra Valley?

(a) Rice, Jute, Oilseeds

(b) Rice, Pulses, Oilseeds

(c) Rice, Tea, Oilseeds

(d) Tea, Gram, Jute

Ans. (c)

17. Which irrigation canal irrigates the portion of Thar Desert?


(a) Indira Gandhi canal

(b) Nangal canal

(c) Western Yamuna canal

(d) None of these

Ans. (c)

18. Which region in India is known as the ‘Rice Bowl of India’?

(a) North-east region

(b) Indo Gangetic plain


(c) Krishna -Godavari delta

(d) Kerala and Tamil Nadu

Ans. (c)

19. The highest milk producing breed of goat in India is

(a) Barbari

(b) Beetal

(c) Jamnapari

(d) Black Bengal


Ans. (b)

20. Which state produces maximum wheat in the country?

(a) Punjab

(b) U.P

(c) M.P

(d) Rajasthan

Ans. (b)

21. Which one of the following is not a part of the green revolution strategy?

(a) Irrigation


(b) Fertilizer

(c) High yielding varieties of seeds

(d) Crop insurance

Ans. (d)

22. Which of the following is not a rabi crop?

(a) Rice

(b) Wheat

(c) Linseed


(d) Barley

Ans. (a)

23. Which of the following states ranks first in the production of cotton in the country?

(a) Maharashtra

(b) West Bengal

(c Punjab

(d) Gujarat

Ans. (d)

24. In India, the greatest variety of flowers is found in


(a) Assam

(b) Kerala

(c) U.P. hills

(d) Sikkim

Ans. (d)

25. Bangladesh has become a leading competitor of India in the world in the field of

(a) cotton

(b) jute

(c) tea


(d) rice

Ans. (b)

26. Which of the following is the largest livestock ( in number) in India?

(a) Sheep

(b) Goats

(c) Buffaloes

(d) Horses and Ponies

Ans. (b)

27. Which of the following are true regarding Jhum cultivation in India?


1. It is largely practised in Assam

2 It is referred to as ‘slash and burn’ technique

3 in it, the fertility is exhausted in a few years

(a) l, 2 and 3

(b) l and 2

(c) 2 and 3

(d) 1 and 3


Ans. (a)

28. The most widely consumed cereal in India is

(a) barley

(b) wheat

(c) rice

(d) sorghum

Ans. (c)

29. Terrace farming is widely practised in

(a) Malabar coast


(b) Mountain areas

(c) Deserts

(d) Deccan plateau

Ans. (b)

30. Which of the following oilseed crops is grown most extensively in India?

(a) Mustard

(b) Linseed

(c) Sunflower

(d) Groundnut


Ans. (d)

31. Which of the following canals is not used for irrigation?

(a) Indira Gandhi Canal

(b) Buckingham Canal

(c) Western Yamuna Canal

(d) Upper Ganga Canal

Ans. (b)

32. In India, what percentage of area is covered by wheat growing regions?

(a) 10%


(b) 13.5%

(c) l7.8%

(d) 19.5%

Ans. (b)

33. The density of cattle population per 100 hectares of gross cropped area is the highest in

(a) Uttar Pradesh

(b) Bihar

(c) Madhya Pradesh


(d) Haryana

Ans. (d)

34 The maximum density of canals lies in which of the following states?

(a) Tamil Nadu

(b) Andhra Pradesh

(c) Punjab

(d) Uttar Pradesh


Ans. (d)

35. Kerala is famous for the cultivation of

1. Coconut

2.Black pepper

3, Rubber

4. Groundnut

(a) l, 2 and 4

(b) 2, 3 ant 4

(c) l and 4


(d) l, 2, and 3

Ans. (d)

36. In the Northern Plains of India, rice is the main crop from Bengal to eastern Uttar Pradesh, whereas in western Uttar Pradesh, Haryana and Punjab, wheat is the main produce. This is because

(a) in the eastern region, fine clayey soil is avail able

(b) the western region remains cold during the winter season.

(c) the average rainfall decreases towards the west.


(d) the cultivation of rice requires cheap labour force

Ans. (b)

37. Jute is grown on a large scale in the delta of

(a) Ganges

(b) Sutlej

(c) Damodar

(d) Indus

Ans. (c)


38. Indian farmers insurance against crop failure is the process of one of the major methods of risk coverage by Indian farmers in

(a) Dry farming

(b) Share cropping

(c) Mixed cropping

(d) Relay cropping

Ans. (c)

39. Consider the following statements:

I. The Green Revolution has been limited in its spatial coverage in India.


II. It has been confined mainly to Punjab, Haryana and western UttarPradesh.

Of these statements,

(a) both I and II are true.

(b) I is true but II is false.

(c) Both I and II are false.

(d) I is false but II is true.

Ans. (b)

40. India has attained self sufficiency in the production of


(a) coal

(b) iron

(c) nickel

(d) manganese

Ans. (d)

41. The largest coal deposit in India is in

(a) Godavari Valley

(b) Brahmani Valley

(c) Damodar Valley


(d) Satpura Valley

Ans. (c)

42. The headquarters of ONGC is situated at

(a) Bombay

(b) Delhi

(c) Dehradun

(d) Vadodara

Ans. (c)

43. Numaligarh in Assam is associated with which industry


(a) Oil refinery

(b) Automobile

(c) Cofee

(4) Cooperative farming

Ans. (a)

44. Mathura refinery receives crude oil from

(a) Cauvery basin

(b) Vadodara

(c) Kandla


(d) None of these

Ans. (d)

45. Which of the following power systems provides the highest quantity of energy in India?

(a) Hydroelectric

(b) Nuclear

(c) Thermal

(d) Wind and tidal

Ans. (a)

46. Gujarat is the largest producer of salt in India because


(a) it has extensive dry coast

(b) its coastal waters are very saline

(c) it has extensive shallow seas

(d) besides producing salt from saline water it has reserves of rock salt

Ans. (c)

47. Coking coal is found in

(a) Rajasthan

(b) Madhya Pradesh

(c) Bihar


(d) Orissa

Ans. (c)

48. The new oil refinery in North India is going to be set up at

(a) Bhatinda

(b) Panipat

(c) Udaipur

(d) Mathura

(e) Udhampur


Ans. (b)

49. Manganese ore is abundantly found in

(a) Karnataka

(b) Rajasthan

(c) Madhya Pradesh

(d) Orissa

Ans. (c)

50. Bombay High is famous for

(a) atomic reactor


(b) steel plant

(c) chemical industry

(d) petroleum deposits

Ans. ( d)

SAIL MANAGEMENT TRAINEE 2010 ENGLISH PAPER

Fill in the Blanks with appropriate Words

1. ‘Please’ and ‘Thank you’ are the little courtesies by which we keep the…….. of life oiled and running smoothly.

(a) river

(b) garden


(c) path

(d) machine



2. The bright colour of this shirt has………. away.

(a) gone

(b) disappeared

(c) faded

(d) paled




3. One major ……….between the Election Commission and the Union Government is related to the powers of the former in respect of the deployment of central police forces at places where an election isheld.

(a) conflict

(b) pain

(c) irritant

(d) culprit



4.Even a ………glance will reveal the mystery

(a)crude


(b)cursory

(c) critical

(d) curious



5. His standard of living has……. since his son joined service.

(a) lifted

(b) increased

(c) risen

(d) heightened




6. The passengers were afraid but the captain …….them that there was no danger.

(a) instructed

(b) advised

(c) promised

(d) assured



7. His first failure did not…… him from making another attempt.


(a) interfere

(b) forbid

(c) frighten

(d) deter



8. No one will ……….. you for having been rude to your teacher.

(a) exclaim

(b) admire

(c) advise


(d) recommend



9.The doctor …….. the patient from taking certain medicines.

(a) banned

(b) prohibited

(c) prescribed

(d) proscribed



10.I ……..a car to be absolutely necessary these days.


(a) think

(b)regard

(c) consider

(d) agree



11. He didn’t have the……….. idea of villager’s problems.

(a) smallest

(b)finest


(c) faintest

(d) feeblest



12. This is a………… translation of the speech.

(a) verbatim

(b)verbal

(c) literal

(d) literary




13.The news of the secret deal soon despite official silence.

(a) discovered

(b) disclosed

(c)leaked out

(d) divulged



14. No man had a more ………..love for literature, or a higher respect for it, than

Samuel Johnson.


(a)arduous

(b) ardent

(c) animated

(d) adroit



15.I have often ………why he went to live abroad.

(a) puzzled

(b) wondered

(c) thought


(d) surprised



16.He lives near ……………a lonely of countryside.

(a) piece

(b) length

(c) stretch

(d) section



17. To nobody else did the story seem ………


(a) contingent

(b) credible

(c) credulous

(d) creditable



18. The transfer of territories could not take place because one state ……………..the findings of the Commission.

(a) objected

(b) questioned

(c)rejected


(d) disputed



19.Anticipating renewed rioting, the authorities erected …………….to block off the streets.

(a) dykes

(b) barrages

(c) barricades

(d) barracks



20.When their examinations were over, the children gleefully……. the books they had been reading.


(a) despised

(b) neglected

(c) shelve

(d)overthrow



Answers



1. D      2.C     3. A     4.B      5.C


6. D      7.D     8. B     9.B      10.C

11. C      12.C     13. C     14.B      15.B


16. C     17.B     18. D     19.C     20.B

 

SECTION –II

GENERAL AWARENESS

85. Which of the following Vedas is the oldest?

1. Samveda
2. Yaju veda
3. Atharva veda
4. Rig veda

86. Who wrote Panchtantra?

1. Bhavbhuti
2. Vishnu Sharma
3. Kalidasa
4. Shri Harsha

87. Who was the last Guru of the Sikhs?

1. Guru Govind Singh
2. Guru Tegh Bahadur
3. Guru Nanak Dev
4. Guru Harkishan

88. Who said, “Man is a social animal.”

1. Aristotle
2. Rosseau
3. Plato
4. Laski

89. Which one of the following dynasties was ruling the time of Alexander’s invasion?

1. The Nanda Dynasty
2. The Maurya Dynasty
3. The Kanva Dynasty
4. The Sunga Dynasty

90. The Census was introduced for the first time in India during the tenure of

1. Lord Cornwallis
2. Lord William Bentinck
3. Lord Rippon
4. Lord Clive

91. Who designed the National Flag of India?

1. Pingly Venkaiyya
2. Vallabh Bhai Patel
3. B.R. Ambedkar
4. Aurobindo Ghosh

92. From which of the following state does the Tropic of cancer not pass?

1. Rajasthan
2. Jharkhand
3. Tripura
4. Manipur

93. Which among the following is the smallest state area-wise?

1. Nagaland
2. Mizoram
3. Meghalaya
4. Manipur

94. As per Census 2001, which one of the following states recorded the lowest growth rates of population during the period of 1991 to 2001.

1. Andhra Pradesh
2. Karnataka
3. Kerala
4. Tamil Nadu

95. Which of the following rivers does not form a delta?

1. Ganges
2. Narmada
3. Mandavi
4. Mahanadi

96. The weight of an object will be minimum when it is placed at:

1. The North Pole
2. The South Pole
3. The Equator
4. The Center of the Earth

97. Which one of the following is a land-locked country?

1. Cambodia
2. Thailand
3. Vietnam
4. Laos

98. Earthquake travels fastest in-

1. Soil
2. Molten Rock
3. Water
4. Flexible Rock

99. Joint sitting of both the houses of Indian Parliament is presided over by

1. The President of India
2. The Speaker of Lok Sabha
3. The Chairman of Rajya Sabha
4. The Prime Minister

100. To who is the Council of Ministers collectively responsible?

1. The President
2. The Prime Minister
3. The Lok Sabha
4. The Rajya Sabha

101. The Vice-President of India is elected by an electoral college consisting of:

1. only the elected members of both Houses of Parliament
2. only Rajya Sabha members
3. all members of Parliament and State Legislative Assemblies
4. all members of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha

102. Centre-State financial distribution takes place following the recommendations made by the

1. Inter-State Council
2. Finance Commission
3. Planning Commission
4. Parliament

103. Sellers market denotes a situation where –

1. Commodities are available at competitive rates
2. Demand exceeds supply
3. Supply exceeds demand
4. Supply and demand are equal

104. Development means economic growth plus –

1. Inflation
2. Deflation
3. Price Stability
4. Social change

105. Which of the following ports of India has a free trade zone?

1. Cochin
2. Mumbai
3. Kandla
4. Diu

106. Dual pricing implies –

1. Wholesale price and Retail price
2. Pricing of agents and Pricing of retailer
3. Price fixed by Government and Price in the open market
4. Daily prices and Weekly prices

107. ‘Sudden Death’ rule is associated with:

1. Wrestling
2. Hockey
3. Water Polo
4. Football

108. Galvanised Iron sheets have a coating of –

1. Tin
2. Lead
3. Zinc
4. Chromium

109. The Principle on which a Jet Engine is base is:

1. Theory of Angular Momentum
2. Newton’s third Law
3. Theory of Friction
4. Theory of Kinetic Energy

110. The different colours of different stars are due to the variations in -

1. temperature
2. pressure
3. density
4. radiation from them

111. The speed of light will be minimum while passing through

1. glass
2. vacuum
3. air
4. water

112. Which of the following tennis tournaments is played on Clay court?

1. Australian Open
2. French Open
3. Wimbledon
4. U.S. open

113. The instrument that measures and record the purity of milk is called:

1. Hydrometer
2. Hygrometer
3. Lactometer
4. Barometer

114. At which part of the tongue are the taste buds for sweet taste located?

1. Tip
2. Back
3. Sides
4. Middle

115. Stem cuttings are commonly used for re-growing –

1. Cotton
2. Banana
3. Jute
4. Sugar Cane

116. Which one of the following human nutrients plays an important role in the coagulation of blood?

1. Calcium
2. Iron
3. Potassium
4. Sodium

117. Which of the following is known as first line defense for the body?

1. Antibodies
2. WBC
3. Nails
4. Skin

118. In the case of a test tube baby

1. Fertilisation takes place inside the test tube
2. Development of the baby takes place inside the test tube
3. Fertilization takes place outside the mother’s body
4. Unfertilized egg develops inside the test tube

119. Which of the following cell organelles is the site for Protein synthesis?

• Ribosome
• Mitochondria
• Chloroplast
• Golgi Complex

VERBAL ABILTY

In questions 120-123, the word which is opposite in meaning to the word given on the top is:

120. SPURIOUS
1. genuine
2. angry
3. glorious
4. antique
121. ENUNCIATE
1. pray
2. deliver
3. request
4. mumble
122. RESILIENT
1. pungent
2. worthy
3. unyielding
4. insolent
123. EXPEDITE
1. explore
2. obstruct
3. prompt
4. disburse

Instructions for Questions 124-128: Read the following passage and answer the questions after it.

Differentiation of the two kinds of socialization is to some extent explained by reference to the complex manpower requirements of the modern state. The social learning acquired through upbringing often needs to the extended because it does not provided for the national need in many countries for trained personnel like clerical workers technician, civil servants and so on. In this respect secondary socialization can be regarded as complementary to primary socialization. The former, we might say, provides the individual with skills which allow him to take on specialist employment and to have a role in a larger social environment, whereas the latter allows him to be integrated into the particular social group into which he is born. Thus we might argue that primary socialization defined the individual’s role in a small social group and enables him to identify himself as a member of his family and his local community. Secondary socialization, on the other hand provides for the individual’s role in society as a whole and enables him to identify himself as a citizen of the state. In Short, and to oversimplify, we might say that the first kind of socialization provides a sense of security and social interaction, whereas the second provides opportunity and the possibility of social mobility.

124. Which of the following is NOT possible through primary socialization?
1. defining individual’s role in a small social group
2. identifying oneself with one’s family
3. identifying oneself as a citizen of the state
4. integrating into the local community
125. The modern state very much requires:
1. primary socialization of its citizens
2. many unskilled workers
3. a large social environment
4. specialist manpower
126.  The opportunity to go up in one’s profession and society is:
1. derived from one’s upbringing
2. derived form secondary socialization
3. availed through complex manpower requirements
4. availed by identifying oneself with one’s state
127. Secondary socialization is important in one’s life because it helps one to:
1. take one specialized employment
2. identify oneself with one’s family
3. define his role in his social group
4. integrate with his community
128. Complex manpower requirements means –
1. man requires complex powers
2. highly trained personnel are required
3. acquiring power in a complex process
4. power of man is required to be complex

Instructions for questions 129-133: Read the following passage and answer the questions after it.

Nowadays the fine old simplicities are lost. Physicist’s assure us that there is no such thing as matter and psychologists assure us that there is no such thing as mind. This is an unprecedented occurrence.

To begin with the latter some of them attempt to reduce everything that seems to the mental activity to an activity of the body. There are however various difficulties in the way of reducing mental activity to physical activity.

What we can really say on the basis of Physics itself is that what we have hitherto called out body is really as elaborate scientific construction, not corresponding to any physical reality. The modern would be materialist, thus finds himself in a curious conceptual dilemma. Evidently we have to look for something that is neither body nor mind, out of which both can spring.

The common man however thinks that material objects must certainly exist since they are evident to the senses. The physicists disagree as matter in motion which in motion which used to seem so unquestionable turns out to be a concept quite inadequate for the needs of physics.

129. In the sentence “To begin with the latter, some of them…..” latter refers to :
1. physicists
2. matter
3. psychologists
4. mind
130. “But the philosopher was apt to reduce it usually to ……’. Here ‘it’ refers to :
• his analysis of man
• the human body
• the mind of the man
• idea in the mind

131. A plain man thinks that material objects exist because-
1. they constitute the metaphysics
2. they are real in his through process
3. certain electrons and protons form them
4. he can perceive them
132. Psychologists mentioned in the passage–
1. believe that mental activities get manifested in abnormal physical activities
2. try to equate mental activity to physical activity
3. do not accept the distinction between body and soul
4. support the physicist’s perception of a body
133. Which of the following does the modern science support according to the passage?
1. Mind the matter are necessary to organize events
2. Metaphysical division of events
3. The discovery of equally important mind and matter
4.  Mind and Soul do not exist as an entity

In questions 134-138, then word which is nearest in meaning to the word given on the top is:

134. ATROCITY
1. endurance
2. hatred
3. brutality
4. aversion
135. FORTITUDE
1. enthusiasm
2. bravery
3. cleverness
4. excitement
136. GARRULOUS
1. sociable
2. showy
3. gourmet
4. talkative
137. RESPERCUSSION
1. reaction
2. resistance
3. repetition
4. repulsion
138. SYCOPHANT
1. fun-loving
2. self-controlled
3. benevolent
4. flatterer

In questions 139-143, the key word is used in four different ways. Choose the options in which the usage of the word is NOT correct.

139. COVER
1. The light was so bright that I had to cover my eyes.
2. Did you see the cover of the college magazine this year?
3. We took cover from the rain in a bus shelter.
4. People try to avoid tax by setting up a cover to donate money to charity.
140. PUSH
1. The manufacturers are really pushing this new shampoo.
2. He has difficulty pushing his feelings into words.
3. We should be able to move this table if we push it together.
4. She pushed through the crowd saying that she was a doctor.
141. FLASH
1. Camera bulbs flashed as the Prime Minister appeared on the podium.
2. The news on Tsunami flashed around the world within minutes.
3. Violence flashed in many areas of the town last night.
4. A strange through flashed through her mind.
142. OPENING
1. The audience could hardly hear the opening remarks.
2. I like to get out in the opening air on weekends.
3. The films opening night was a huge success.
4. the opening of the novel is by far its best part
143. ISSUE
1. The problem came to a successful issue.
2. My article appeared in the August issue of the magazine.
3. The government issued a special stamp on World Health Day.
4. There were problems of property as he died without any issue.

In questions 144-146, each statement has a part missing. Choose the best option to complete the statement.

144. Of the many technological advances that took place during the 19th Century none was to have _____________ of the steam engine.
1. quite such enormous impact as inventing
2. quite such an enormous impact as the invention
3. quite such enormous an impact like inventing
4. quite such an enormous impact like invention
145. One of the most ___________ which holds that America is a highly materialistic nation, a nation which exalts the money-grubber and has a minimum  of respect for things of the mind and spirit.
1. fashionable of the clichés is the one
2. fashionable clichés is the one
3. fashionable cliché is the one
4. fashionable of the cliché is that
146. ____________who watch a great deal of television and also among children, who view television shortly before bed time.
1. Among children more common sleep disturbances are
2. More common sleep disturbances among children are
3. sleep disturbance among children are more common
4. sleep disturbance are more common among children

In questions 147-149, a sentence with two blanks is given. From the alternative pairs, select the words of which best completes the given sentence.

147. State hospitality extended to a visiting foreign dignitary is often used symbolically to convey ________ messages, and very often pomp and ceremony serve to _________ sharp differences.
1. subtle…..mask
2. loud…..camouflage
3. sharp…..hide
4. important.....accentuate
148. A number of journalist and cameramen were ______ questioned by the police when they went to cover the ___________ drive of the state government.
1. deliberately…..constitute
2. mistakenly…..discover
3. inadvertently…..install
4. wantonly..…create
149. It is _________ to try to destroy pests completely with chemical poisons, for as each new chemical pesticides is introduced, the insects gradually become __________ to it.

Quantitative Aptitude

150. Two pipes A and B can fill a tank in 36 minutes and 45 minutes respectively. Pipe C can empty the tank in 30 minutes. First A and B are opened. After 7 minutes, C is also opened. In how much total time, the tank will be full.
• 36 minutes
• 42 minutes
• 46 minutes
• 45 minutes
151. A toy was sold at a loss for Rs. 60. Had it been sold for Rs. 81, the gain would have been 3/4th of the former loss. The cost of the toy is -
• Rs. 65
• Rs. 70
• Rs. 81
• Rs. 72
152. Vijay invested Rs. 50,000 partly at 10% and partly at 20%. His total income after a year was Rs. 6000. How much did he invest at the rate of 10%?
• Rs. 30,000
• Rs. 40,000
• Rs. 12,000
• Rs. 20,000
153. Two alloys A and B contain iron in the ration 7:3. IF 25 kg of alloy A and 25 kg of alloy B are mixed to form a new alloy which contains 35% of iron, find the amount of iron in alloy B.
• 15 kg
• 7.8 kg
• 8.7 kg
• 18.2 kg
154. Two trains 121 m and 99 m long, are running in opposite directions at speeds of 40 km/hr and 32 kg/hr respectively. In what time will they completely clear each other form the moment they meet?
• 7 seconds
• 9 seconds
• 10 seconds
• 11 seconds
155. The rate of interest on a sum of money is 4% per annum for the first two years, 6% per annum for the next 4 years and 8% per annum for the period beyond 6 year. If the simple interest accrued by the sum for a total period of 9 years is Rs. 1120, what is the sum?
• Rs. 1500
• Rs. 2000
• Rs. 2500
• Rs. 4000
156. A soldier ascends a greased pole 36 meters high. He ascends 3 metres in first minute and descends 1 metre in second minute. He again ascends 3 meters in third minute and descends 1 metre in fourth minute and so on. In how much time will he reach to top?
• 36 minutes
• 33 minutes
•  minutes
•  minutes
157. The current of a stream runs at 1 km.hr. A motor boat goes 35km upstream and is back again to the starting point in 12 hours. The speed of motorboat in still water is:
• 6 km/hr
• 7 km/hr
• 8 km/hr
• 8.5 km/hr
158. The average age of a couple (a husband and wife) was 23 years when they were married 5 years ago. The average age of the husband, the wife and a child, who was born during the interim period, is 20 years now. What is the present age of the child?
159. Kripal, Vinay and Apoorva went for lunch to a restaurant. Kripal had Rs. 100 with him, Vinay had Rs. 104 and decided to give a tip of Rs. 16. They further decided to share to total expenses in the ratio of the amounts of money each carried. The amount of money which Kripal paid more than what Apporva paid is
• Rs. 120
• Rs. 200
• Rs. 60
• Rs. 36
160. Two merchants each sell an article for Rs. 1000. If merchants A computes his profit on cost price, while merchant B computes his profit on selling price, they end up making profits of 25% respectively. By how much is the profit made by merchant B greater than that of merchant A?
• Rs. 66.67
• Rs. 50
• Rs. 125
• Rs. 200
161. What is the greatest value of a positive integer ‘n’ such that 3n is a factor of 1818?
• 15
• 18
• 30
• 33
162. If x+y=5; x+z=7 and y+z=12, then the value of x+y+z=?
• 12
• 2
• 5
• 24
163. What is the remainder when 3x2–2x2y-13xy2+10y3 is divided by (x-2y)?
• 0
• y
• x+y
• x+2y
164. At a certain ice cream parlor, customers can choose from among five different ice cream flavors and can choose either a sugar cone or a waffle cone. Considering both ice cream flavor and cone types, how many distinct triple-scoop cones with three different ice cream flavors are available?
• 12
• 16
• 20
• 24
165. If a straight line y = ax+b passes through (2,1) and (-1,0), then ordered pair (a,b) is:
• (3, -1)
• 
• (-1,3)
• (3,3)
166. If ABCD is a quadrilateral such that its diagonals AC and BC intersect at O to form four triangles equal in area . Then ABCD must be a:
• parallelogram
• Rectangle
• Square
• All of the above
167. The chords AP and AQ of a circle of radius 6 cm are at a distance 3cm and  respectively from the centre O of the circle, then the area of the smaller sector POQ is :
• 24 p cm2
• 21 p cm2
• 15 p cm2
• 12 p cm2
168. On the xy-coordinate plane, points A and B both lie on the circumference of a circle whose center is O, and the length of AB equals the circle’s diameter. If the (x,y)  coordinates of O are (2,1) and the (x,y) coordinates of B are (4,6), what are the (x,y) coordinates of A?
• 
• 
• 
• 
169. ABCD is a square, each of side of which is 2 cm. Taking AB and AD as axes, the equation of the circle circumscribing the square is :
• x2+y2 = (x+y)
• x2+y2 = 2(x+y)
• x2+y2 = 4
• x2+y2 = 16
170. If ‘a’ is the length of the base and ‘b’ the height of a right angled triangle hypotenuse of which is h and if the values of a and b are positive integers, which of the following cannot be a value of the square of the hypotenuse?
• 13
• 23
• 37
• 41
171. The circumference of the front wheel of a cart is 30 ft long and that of the back wheel is 36 ft long. What is the distance travelled by the cart, when the front wheel has done five more revolutions than the rear wheel?
• 200 ft
• 250 ft
• 750 ft
• 900 ft

172. Four circular card-board pieces; each of radius 7 cm are placed in such a way that each piece touches two other pieces. The are of the space enclosed by the four pieces is:
• 21 cm2
• 42 cm2
• 84 cm2
• 168 cm2
173. The circumcircle of an equilateral triangle of side 6 cm is drawn. Find the area that is inside the circle but outside the triangle?
• 22.21
• 19.78
• 22.11
• 18.76
174. A spherical lead ball of radius 10 cm is melted and small lead balls of radius 5mm are made. The total number of possible small lead balls is:
• 800
• 125
• 400
• 8000
175. A rectangle, having a 72 cm perimeter, is divided into 9 congruent rectangles and two  congruent squares. The edge of square is the same as one of the edges of the smaller rectangle. What is the perimeter and area of the smaller rectangle?
• 24 cm, 36 cm2
• 24 cm, 32 cm2
• 12 cm, 32 cm2
• 12 cm, 36 cm2
176. In a triangle ABC, the sum of the exterior angles at B and C is equal to:
• 180o - ÐBAC
• 180o + ÐBAC
• 180o - 2ÐBAC
• 180o + 2ÐBAC
177. If x = sin0+cos0 and y = sin 20, then which of the following is true?
• x2-y=1
• x2 =1-y
• y=x2+1
• y2=x+1
178. The angle of elevation of the top of a 30 m high tower, from two points on the level ground on its opposite sides are 45 degrees and 60 degrees. What is the distance between the two points?
• 30
• 51.96
• 47.32
• 81.96
179. A person aims at a bird on top of a 5m high pole with the elevation of 30 degree. If a bullet is fired, it will travel P m before reaching the bird. The a value of P (in m) is :
• 
• 10
• 
• 
180. Of the two boxes, Box 1 contains 2 Pink and 5 White chalks while Box 2 contains 4 Blue and 3 Green chalks. Four chalks are taken out, two from Box 1 and remaining from Box 2. What is the probability of getting four different colour chalks?
• 
• 
• 
• 
181. A problem is given to three students x,y,z whose chances of solving the problem are  and  respectively. What is the probability that the problem will be solved?
• 
• 
• 
• 
In questions 182-183, a series is given. Which one of the number or letter-number clusters in the given series is wrong.
182. G 4 T, J 10 R, M 20 P, P 43 N, S 90 L
• G 4 T
• J 10 R
• M 20 P
• P 43 N
183. 5, 12,19,33,47,75,104.
• 33
• 47
• 75
• 101
In questions 183 to 185, a number-series is given. Which one of the alternatives will ensure the sequential continuity of the series?
184. 3, 6, 5, 20, 7, 42, 9,……..
• 54
• 60
• 66
• 72
185. 0, 2, 8, 14, 24, …….
• 34
• 35
• 36
• 42
In question 186-187, a series is given with a blank shown by a question mark. Which one of the alternatives can correctly fill-in the question mark?
186. 6, 15, 3, (?), 143, 221
• 63
• 77
• 90
• 56
187. 7T19, 9Q16, 11N13, 13K10, 15H7, (?)
• 17 E 4
• 18 F 5
• 17 E 3
• 18 D 4
In questions 188-189, a letter series is given, in which some letters are missing. The missing letters are given in the proper sequence as one of the alternatives. Find the correct alternative.
188. aa _ ab _ aaa _ a
• aaab
• aabb
• abab
• baaa
189. mnonopqopqrs _ _  _  _ _ _
• mnopq
• oqrst
• pqrst
• qrstu
190. The arrangement of letters of which of the given clusters is different from the rest?
• GTSH
• BYXC
• ETUF
• LONM
191. The arrangement of letters of which of the given clusters is different from the rest?
• BD
• CI
• EY
• AC
192. In a certain code ‘MANISH’ is written as 415918. How will ‘PRASHANT’ be written in the same code?
• 79181152
• 79181125
• 79118125
• 79118152
193. If in an cricket season, Mumbai defeated Hyderabad twice. Bangalore defeated Mumbai twice, Hyderabad defeated Bangalore twice, Mumbai defeated Kolkata twice and Bangalore defeated Kolkata twice. Which of the teams lost the largest number of matches?
• Mumbai
• Hyderabad
• Bangalore
• Kolkata

194. A bus for Bombay leaves after every forty minutes from a bus stand. An enquiry clerk told a passenger that the bus had already left ten minutes ago and the next bus will leave at 10.45 a.m. At what time did the enquiry clerk give this information to the passenger?
1. 10:05 a.m.
2. 9:55 a.m.
3. 10:35 a.m.
4. 10:15 a.m.
195. As a ‘Lion’ is to ‘Cub’, a ‘Camel’ is to:
1. Signet
2. Stag
3. Calf
4. Foal
196. Identify the correct deduction.
Statements: All labourers are wrestlers. All grocers are labourers. Conclusions:
1. All grocers are wrestlers
2. Some wrestlers are grocers.
3. Some wrestler are labourers.
4. Some labourers are grocers.
1. All conclusions are correct
2. Only 1 and 4 conclusions are correct
3. Only 4 conclusion is correct
4. Only 2 and 3 conclusions are correct
197. Identify the correct deduction.
Statements: All fruits are sweets. All sweets are chocolates. Conclusions:
1. All sweets are fruits.
2. All fruits are chocolates
3. Some chocolates are sweets.
4. No chocolate is sweet.
1. Only conclusion 1 is correct
2. All conclusions are correct
3. Only conclusion 2 and 3 are correct
4. Only conclusion 3 and 4 are correct
198. In the question, five figures marked 1,2,3,4 and 5 are given on the top. Which among the figures marked a,b,c,d given below it would continue the series 1-2-3-4-5.
1. 
2. 
3. 
4. 
5. 
1. 
2. 
3. 
4. 
In each of the questions 199 to 200, five figures marked 1,2,3,4 and 5 continuous a continuous series with a gap marked (?) are given. Which figure from among the figures marked a,b,c,d given below them would accurately fill-in the place marked with the questions mark.
199. Answer the Question:
1. 
2. 
3. 
4. 
5. 
• 
• 
• 
• 
200. Answer the Question:
1. 
2. 
3. 
4. 
5. 
1. 
2. 
3. 
4. 
In each of the questions 201 to 203, the figure marked as X is incomplete. Which of the figures marked as a, b, c, and d would accurately complete the given figure?
201.  

1. 
2. 
3. 
4. 
202.  

1. 
2. 
3. 
4. 
203.  

1. 
2. 
3. 
4. 
In each of the questions 204 to 206, a figure drawn on a transparent paper is given on the left hand side. Which (from among the given four figures given on the right hand side marked as abcd) will this figure take if its is folded along the dotted lines.
204.  

1. 
2. 
3. 
4. 
205.  

1. 
2. 
3. 
4. 
206.  

1. 
2. 
3. 
4. 

In each of the questions 207 to 209, figure 1 and 2 as also 3 and 4 (?) have a certain relationship. From among the given figures a, b, c and d which one, when placed at the position of the question mark, would establish the same relationship.

207.  
1. 
2. 
3. 
4. 
1. 
2. 
3. 
4. 
208.  
1. 
2. 
3. 
4. 
1. 
2. 
3. 
4. 
209.  
1. 
2. 
3. 
4. 
1. 
2. 
3. 
4. 




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