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Chattisgarh State -India

Chhattisgarh is India's 26th state, covers an area of 135,133 sq km. of the total geographical area of nation India and located in Center of India.

Chhattisgarh state of India came into existence on November 1, 2000. Mother tongue of Chhattisgarh is Chattisgarhi.There are 18 districts (initially there was 15 districts) in the state.

6 States of India which are bordered with Chhattisgarh state -
# Bihar, Jharkhand and Uttar Pradesh to the north
# Andhra Pradesh to the south.
# Orissa State to the east.
And by the Madhya Pradesh to the west.

About CGPSC, Colleges, University, Admission in Chattisgarh

Chhattisgarh Public Service Commission, i.e. CGPSC examination held by Chhattisgarh State for graduate students and gazette posts, rajya seva posts. To say CGPSC is a Constitutional Body established to conduct examinations and recruit qualified candidates for appointment to the service of Government of Chhattisgarh.

Prospective candidates of CGPSC 2011 have to be cautious to enter accurate personal details for registration. Regular updates regarding advertisements and notifications of CGPSC 2011 can be accessed by creating a registered profile on the official website. To apply for an examination a candidate must go through the registration process. The CGPSC main exam will be held after preliminary exam for CGPSC 2011.

To know more about Chhattisgarh Lokseva Ayog, CGPSC Exam Result 2010 and Interview Schedule, Subjects of CGPSC Examinations, CGPSC Advertisement and CGPSC Syllabus visit our blog.

BHEL(ET-2011) Written TEST DETAILS/ Exam PATTERN/Sample Papers with Answer Key

Monday, 1 August 2011
Published by Roma Rahul Gupta for Chhattisgarh Online
BHEL(ET-2011) Written TEST DETAILS/ Exam PATTERN/Sample Papers with Answer Key


BHEL (ET-2011) written test is going to schedule on 18 sept.,2011. You can check job notification for BHEL(ET-2011) Written TEST  here.
Below you can find BHEL(ET-2011) Written TEST DETAILS/ Exam PATTERN/Sample Papers with Answer Key



Written Test Details
About
the Written Test

1. Written test will consists of 240 multiple
choice objective type questions.Test is designed to assess the candidate's Professional ( Technical) Knowledge of the chosen Engineering Discipline and Higher Aptitude covering area like Quantitative Aptitude, Reasoning
Ability, Logical thinking, English usage, General Awareness
etc.
1. Your performance in this written
test will determine possibility of further
considerations of your candidature.
3. There is a specific time limit
for Written Test. Candidate will have to answer 240 questions in 2 hours
and 30 minutes.
4. For each question, a choice of
few alternative answers have been given, out of which only
one alternative is correct. You have to choose the alternative,
you think to be correct and indicate your choice on the OMR answer
sheet.
5. Your admission to this Test is,
however, provisional. The candidates are advised to ensure while applying that they fulfill the eligibility criteria and other requirements and that the particulars furnished by them are correct in all respects for the post applied for. Mere
appearance at the Test does not entail you to make any claim
for the post. You will be treated as debarred ab-initio in
case you do not fulfill the essential eligibility criteria.
6. The Answer Sheet is a special
OMR (Optical Mark Reader) sheet.
7. Use BLACK or BLUE Ball point Pen ONLY.
8. Every question will carry 1 mark. Negative marking to the extent of 0.2 marks per wrong answer will be applicable.
9. a) For answering the Test questions,
there will be CIRCLES in the Answer Sheet. The chosen answer
is to be indicated by darkening (encoding) one of the CIRCLES fully. Any other method of answering will be taken as
incorrect answer.
For Example, If 10x+6=106, then
15X -10 will be
. (1) 100 (2)140 (3)110 (4)80 (5)
None of the above
Since correct answer is option
(2), the CIRCLE 2 will have to be darkened (encoded) to
fill the space completely like this:
The following are not correct
methods of marking:
b) Darken only in the CIRCLES
provided. Please do not make any stray marks on the answer
sheet. This will be penalised.
c) Rough work must not be done
on the Answer sheet. This will be penalised. You can use the
Test Booklet for this purpose.
d) Change / Cutting / Overwriting / Erasing of CIRCLES is NOT permitted.

SAMPLE
TEST QUESTION
1. APTITUDE
TEST
Directions: In
the following question, pick the choice whose meaning is
opposite to the word shown in capitals.
1. HOI POLLOI:
(1) Cannibalism (2) Tyranny (3)
The past (4) Aristocracy (5) Capitalist
Directions: In
the following question, the descriptive sentence is aptly
described by just one word. Select the choice which give
the meaning most appropriately:
2. One who talks in his sleep:
(1) Somniloquist (2) Somnivocalist
(3) Somnambulist (4) Somnalesist (5) None of these
Directions: In
each question below you will find three words. The first two
words are related to each other in some way. The third word
is also related in the same way to one of the four alternatives
marked as: (1), (2), (3) and (4). Find it out.
Directions: In
each question below you will find three words. The first two
words are related to each other in some way. The third word
is also related in the same way to one of the four alternatives
marked as: (1), (2), (3) and (4). Find it out.
3. REMAIN : STAY LEAVE: ?
(1) Good-bye (2) Run (3) Farewell
(4) Depart
4. POET : VERSE SCULPTOR : ?
(1) Artist (2) Chisel (3) Statue
(4) Marble
Directions: In
each question below you will find words, four of which are
alike in some respect; they have something in common and belong
to one category. Only one word is different from them; it does
not belong to the category to which the other four belong.
Which word is different from the rest?
5. (1) Foot ball (2) Cricket (3)
Polo (4) Chess (5) Hockey
6. (1) Eye (2) Nose (3) Tongue (4)
Finger (5) Liver
7. In a code where a numeral represents
an alphabet the most likely code for the word RECESS is:
(1) 913155 (2) 723245 (3) 865277 (4) 233300
(5) 983499
8. If in a code a,b,c, means `try
your best', b,o,p,o means `try again & again' x,y,a means
`all the best' - Then `your best again' is represented by
(1) c a o (2) p o c (3) a c p
(4) y c a (5) o c y
Directions: In
the following question complete the given series
9. 48,24,72,36,108, . . . . . .
. . . . .
(1) 110 (2)115 (3) 64 (4) 54 (5) 125
10. Of the following numbers which
one is the greatest?
(1) (0.6 x 0.6)-12 (2) 0.004
x 100 (3) (-0.7)4 (4) 0.2 x 0.2
11. Which of the following numbers
is least?
(1) (1/4)2 (2) 49 (3) 4-9 (4)
42
12. It costs Rs.4.25 for two adults
and their child to attend the Circus. If the child's ticket
is half the price of adult's ticket, what is the price of an
adult's ticket?
(1) Rs.0.75 (2)Rs. 1.70 (3) Rs.1.75
(4) Rs.1.44
13. If `a' is less than 50 and 'b'
is less than 25, it follows that:
(1) a=2b (2) `a` is greater than
b (3) a+b is less than 75 (4) a-b =25 (5) None of these
2A.
TECHNICAL TEST (for Engineer Trainees)
PART
1 - GENERAL
1. A series combination of Resistance
and Capacitor is put across a Thyristor to protect it from:
(1) High Currents (2) High voltage
(3) High rate of change of voltage (4) High rate of change
of current

(5) Thermal run away
2. A Babbitt is:
(1) An eutectic of iron and iron
phosphide

(2) A gadget of measuring volume

(3) Antimony bearing lead or tin alloy

(4) A measure of magnetic induction produced in a material


(5) None of these above
3. An Induction motor is:
(1) Self-starting with zero torque
(2) Self-starting with very high torque

(3) Self-starting with smaller torque than the rated torque
(4) None of the above
PART
II - SPECIALISED FIELDS

ELECTRICAL
ENGINEERING
1. The transformer capacity is 200
KVA, percentage impedance is 4% and tolerance impedance is
10%. The short circuit current in KA is:
(1) 0.39 (2) 8.21 (3) 8210 (4)
82100 (5) 0.821
2. A 20 KVA transformer was found
to have 600 W Iron losses and 700 W Copper losses, when supplying
full load at 0.8 power factor. The efficiency of the transformer
on full load is:
(1) 92.5% (2) 91.2% (3) 100%
(4) 98.2% (5) None of these
3. A water heater holds 20 litres
of water. An electric immersion heater which will raise the
temperature of the water from 10 degree C to 88 degree C in
55 minutes and efficiency of 85%. The rating in KW is
(1)7685000 (2)2330 (3)2.33 (4)
23.3 (5) None of these
ELECTRONICS
ENGINEERING
1. A 10 Kw transistor is modulated
to 80%. The average side band power will be:
(1) 1.8 KW (2) 8 KW (3) 3.2 KW
(4) 4.6 KW (5) 4.26 KW
2. A resonant circuit has the resonance
frequency 1 MHz and quality factor, Q, 100. Its 3-db band width
is:
(1) 10 KHz (2) 5 KHz (3) 100
KHz (4) 20 KHz (5) None of these
MECHANICAL
ENGINEERING
1. The inlet valve of a four stroke
cycle I.C. engine remains open for nearly:
(1) 180o (2) 125o (3)
235o (4) 200o (5) 275o
2. Diesel cycle efficiency is maximum
when the cut off is:
(1) Increased (2) Decreased (3)
Maximum (4) Minimum (5) Zero
ANSWER
KEY
1. APTITUDE
TEST
1(4) 2. (1) 3.(4) 4.(3) 5.(4)
6.(5) 7.(1) 8. (1) 9.(4) 10.(1) 11.(3) 12.(2) 13.(3)
2A.
TECHNICAL TEST - PART I - GENERAL
1(3) 2.(3) 3.(3)
PART
II - SPECIALISED FIELDS
1. ELECTRICAL ENGG. 1. (2) 2. (1)
3.(3)
2. ELECTRONICS ENGG. 1. (3) 2. (1)
3. MECHANICAL ENGG. 1. (3) 2. (5)
The tests have
been designed to determine whether you have a sound knowledge
of your subject. You are, therefore, advised to revise all
the sections of your course syllabus in order to prepare adequately
for the test.

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