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Solved SAIL(MT) Exam Paper for Electronics

Wednesday 27 July 2011
Published by Roma Rahul Gupta for Chhattisgarh Online
Solved SAIL(MT) Exam Paper for Electronics
SAIL for Management Trainee-2010 with E&T as discipline.


The question paper consisted of two sections each with 100 questions and 75 mins for each section.


Note: 1 mark for correct answer and -1/4 for wrong answer.


Section I


E&T Technical questions. (100 questions)


1) Nearly 20 questions were based on Op-Amps like the highest frequency of OP-Amp depends on
a) Input V b) Output V c) Bandwidth d) Max Output V
2) The purpose of Op-Amp clamper is for what
a) Clamping the output voltage b) Lowering the output V c) Lowering the input V d) None of these


3) What is the purpose of PWM in current source inverter?


4) At higher frequencies which of the following noises become significant?
a) Thermal Noise b) Short noise c) White noise


5) Nearly 10 questions were based on Flip-Flops like what is the number of flip-flops required for decade counter?
a) 1 b) 2 c)3 d)4


6) How many flip flops are required for input frequency to be divided by 32?


7) What is the output frequency of a T-Flip flop if the input if input frequency is f
a) f/2 b) f c) 2f d) 4f


8) Nearly 8 questions were asked on RLC circuits like what is the effect on resonance frequency when all the values of RLC are doubled?
a) 4f b) 3f c) f/4 d) f


9) What is the voltage on capacitor at resonance with input voltage a 10v and Q factor of the circuit is 40?


10) Which of the following is S.I engine?
1) Gas 2) Petrol 3) Diesel 4) Kerosene engine


11) What is the difference between petrol and diesel engine?


12) Which of the facts is true?
a) All reversible engines have same efficiency
b) All engines are designed reversible to obtain maximum efficiency?
c) Irreversible engines have maximum efficiency?


12) What is the characteristic of an isolated system?
a) No transfer of mass both the directions
b) No transfer of heat on both directions
c) No transfer of heat and mass on both directions
d) Maximum transfer of mass and heat in both directions


13) What is the power transferred to a load if R+ix and with an internal resistance of R-ix of the source with voltage V?


14) If 4 batteries of voltage 6V each are applied parallel to a load of 1.25 ohms with batteries of internal resistance of 0.2 ohms then what is the current through the load resistance?


15) What is the percentage power loss when a battery of 6 V has internal resistance of 0.2 ohms and applied to a load of 6 ohms?


16) What are the frequencies of a system with a transfer function of 100(1+0.5s)(1+0.25s)?
a) 4,2 b) 0.5, 0,25.


17) Which of following is used in SSB AM receiver?
a) LC circuit b) diode rectifier


18) What is the average value of current if the voltage of 10 sin (314t ) is applied to a resistance of 10 ohms?
A) 0.485 B) 0.637


Section II


It contained 4 more more sub-sections General Awareness, Verbal ability, Quantitative aptitude, Logical reasoning


General Awareness (25 questions)


1) Who was the winner of 2010 Twenty-20 world cup?
2) Who is the winner of 2010 Rajiv Khel Ratna award 2010?
3) Bihu is the folk dance of which state?
4) Which river has delta in Arabian sea? A)Tapi B) Mahanadi C) Krishna D)Godavari
5) Which of the following states is with highest population density?
a) WB b) UP c) Jharkand d) Bihar


6) Who is the Ex Chairman of planning commission?
a) PM b) Loksabha Speaker c) Vice President d) President


7) Jim Corbett national park is in which state?


8) Durand line is between which countries? Ans Pakistan and Afghanistan


9) Measles is a disease caused which of the following?
a) Virus b) Bacteria c) Protozoa


Verbal Ability (25 questions)


5 Questions on articles


5 Questions on fill in the blanks with correct words


10 Questions on paragraph reading.


Quantitative Ability (25 questions)


Most of the questions were based on Compound interest, Simple interest, Work, Age related which can be founnd in R.S Aggarwal


Logical Reasining (25 questions)


A situation was given and questions were based on that situation like cube pained with 3 colors and then divided into 64 equal cubes what no of cubes with single color and so on.


Two statements are given and asked whether the question can be solved based on the statements?
A person traveled east west and finally how far is from the source?


Note: To clear the exam you need to clear the sectional cutoff of each sub-section in Section-II also. This was the major deciding factor as after attempting section-I for 75 min then only section-II can be attempted for the next 75 mins


The technical paper of E&T was difficult as it was mainly theoretical and were based on concepts of the subjects. Section-II will be easy for an engineer, but the time may not be sufficient as there is sub sectional cutoff.
Electronics Engineering



1.         Two coils in differential connection have self-inductance of 2 mH and 4 mH and a mutual inductance of 0.15 mH. The equivalent inductance of the combination is

            A. 5.7 mH

            B. 5.85 mH

            C. 6 mH


            D. 6.15 mH.

2.         Two point charges Q and -Q are located on two opposite corners of a square as shown in figure. If the potential at the corner A is taken as 1V, then the potential at B, the centre of the square will be

                       

                                                                       

  1. zero
  2. 1V
3.         Optocouplers combine

            A. SITs and BJTs

            B. IGBTs and MOSFETS

            C. Power transformers and silicon transistor

            D. Infrared light-emitting diode and a silicon phototransistor


4.         The difference between the indicated value and the true value of a quantity is known as

            A. Gross error

            B. Absolute error

            C. Dynamic error

            D. Relative error

5.         The principles of homogeneity and super-position are applied to :


            A. linear time variant systems

            B. non-linear time variant systems

            C. linear time invariant systems

            D. non-linear time invariant systems.

6.         In a 8085 microprocessor system with memory mapped I / 0,

            A. I / 0 devices have 8-bit addresses


            B. I / 0 devices are accessed using IN and OUT instructions

            C. there can be a maximum of 256 input devices and 256 output devices.

            D. arithmetic and logic operations can be directly performed with the I / 0 data.

7.         The transistor shown in figure below, is biased

                       

  1. at cut-off
  2. at saturation
  3. well into saturation
  4. well into cut-off
8.         In any transmitting antenna system, efficiency primarily depends upon

            A. ohmic losses of various conductors

            B. radiation resistance

            C. ground conductivity


            D. atmospheric conditions.

9.         An instruction used to set the carry Flag in a computer can be classified as

            A. data transfer

            B. arithmetic

            C. logical

            D. program control


10.       The binary representation of 5.375 is

            A. 111.1011

            B. 101.1101

            C. 101.011

            D. 111.001

11.       Dislocations in materials are


            A. point defect

            B. line defect

            C. planer defect

            D. surface defects.

12.       In TV system, vertical pulses are separated out from horizontal pulses by the use of

            A. integrator


            B. differentiator

            C. sweep credit

            D. sync separator.

13.       Frequency in the UHF range propagate by means of

            A. Ground waves

            B. Sky waves


            C. Surface waves

            D. Space waves.

14.       200 MHz may be classified as

            A. VHF

            B. SHF

            C. UHF


            D. EHF

15.       A communication satellite is a repeater between

            A. a transmitting station and a receiving station

            B. a transmitting station and many receiving stations

            C. many transmitting stations and many receiving stations

            D. none of the above


16.       The power in a series R-L-C circuit will be half of that at resonance when the magnitude of the current is equal to

            A. V / 2R

            B. V /

            C. V /

            D.


17.       A point charge Q is located on the surface of a sphere of radius R as shown in the figure. The average electric field on the surface of the sphere will be

                       

  1. infinite
  2. Zero
18.       The efficiency of a chopper can be expected in the range


A. 50 to 55 percent

            B. 65 to 72 percent

            C. 82 to 87 percent

            D. 92 to 99 percent

19.       Which one out of the following instruments should be used to measure 600 kV a.c. voltages?      

            A. Hot wire instrument


            B. Electrostatic voltmeter

            C. Moving coil voltmeter

            D. Moving iron voltmeter.









20.                              

                                   


            Which one of the following transfer functions represents the Bode plot shown in the above figure :

21.       The following programme is run on an 8085 microprocessor,

                        Memory address in Hex          Instruction


                                    2000                            LXI SP, 1000

                                    2003                            PUSH H

                                    2004                            PUSH D

                                    2005                            CALL 2050


                                    2008                            POP 2050

                                    2009                            HIT

As the completion of execution of the program, the program the program counter of the 8085 contains ………, and the stack pointer contains ……..

  1. 2050, OFFC
  2. 2251, OFFC
  3. 1025, OCCF
  4. 1025, OCCF
22.       With reference to figure, value of VCE is

                       

  1. 0 V
  2. 5 V
  3. -5V
  4. none of the above
23.       The smallest change in sound intensity that can be detected

            A. 1 dB

            B. 3 dB

            C. 10 dB

            D. 20 dB.

24.       In a generic microprocessor, instruction cycle time is


            A. shorter than machine cycle time

            B. larger than machine cycle time

            C. exactly double the machine cycle time

            D. exactly the same as the machine cycle time

25.       The value of M in the end will be

                        Do   100   I = 1, 2


                        DO   200   J = 1, 2

                                        M = M + I + J

                        200   CONTINUE

                        100   CONTINUE


                                    STOP

                                    END

  1. 10
  2. 11
  3. 12
  4. 14
26.       Resistivity of electrical conductors is most affected by


            A. temperature

            B. pressure

            C. composition

            D. all of the above.

27.       In CCIR B-system of TV, blanking pulse is placed during

            A. equalizing pulse


            B. retrace interval between each line

            C. retrace period of vertical line

            D. none of the above.

28.       The polarization required in ground wave propagation is

            A. Horizontal (linear)

            B. vertical (linear)


            C. Circular

            D. Elliptical

29.       Multicavity Klystron

            A. is not a microwave device

            B. is not a good low level amplifier because of noise

            C. is not suitable to pulse operation


            D. has a high repeller voltage to insure small transit time

30.       Transponder comprises of

            A. Transmitter

            B. Receiver

            C. Antenna

            D. a, b, c combined


31.       Consider the following statements regarding the circuit shown in the given figure :

            1.         If the switch K is closed at a proper instant there will be no transient

2.         The instant at which K is closed such that the transient is zero depends on the frequency of the supply

3.         The instant at which K is closed such that the transient is zero depends on the circuit elements


4.         There will always be a non-zero transient after the switch K is colosed.

                                     

            Of these statements :

  1. 1 alone is correct.
  2. 1 and 2 are correct.
  3. 1 and 3 are correct
  4. 4 alone is correct.
32.       A circular ring carrying a uniformly distributed charge Q and a point charges -Q on the axis of the ring are shown in the fig. The magnitude of the dipole moment of the charge system is

                                                                       

  1. Qd
  2. Q R2 / d
  3. Q
  4. QR.
33.       Which of the following regulator provides output voltage polarity reversal without a transformer


            A. Buck regulator

            B. Boost regulator

            C. Buck-boost regulator

            D. Cuk regulator

34.       The deflection of hot wire instrument depends on

            A. RMS value of alternating current


            B. voltage

            C. average value of a.c. current

            D. instantaneous value of a.c. current.

35.       Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists :

                        List-I                                                   List-II


            (Response to a unit step input)           (Location of poles in the s-plane)

  1.                                    1.One at the origin
            B.                                            2.Two identical roots on the negative real axis.

            C.                                            3.Two on the imaginary axis


            D.                                           4.One on the position real axis.

            Codes:

                        A         B         C         D


            A.        4          3          2          1

            B.        3          4          1          2


            C.        3          4          2          1

            D.        4          3          2          1


36.       Dual slope integration type Analog-to-Digital converters provide

            A. higher speeds compared to all other types of A / D converters

            B. very good accuracy without putting extreme requirements on component stability

C. poor rejection of power supply hums

D. better resolution compared to all other types of A / D converters for the same number

of bits.

37.       In the figure given below, the collector current is


                       

  • 2 mA
  • 200 mA
  • Almost zero
  • 0.02 mA
38.       The frequency modulated (FM) radio frequency range is nearly

            A. 250 - 300 MHz


            B. 150 - 200 MHz

            C. 90 - 105 MHz

            D. 30 - 70 MHz

39.       A 32 bit microprocessor has the word length equal to

            A. 2 bytes

            B. 1 byte


            C. 4 bytes

            D. 8 bytes

40.       In electronic microcircuits, a resistor may be fabricated from constant-thickness layer of semiconductor material with conductor connections at the edges as shown below. If the resistor shown has resistance R, then a similar resistor 0.2 millimeter has a resistance of

                       

  • 4 R
  • 2 R
  • R
  • R / 2
41.       Line imperfection in a crystal is called

            A. Schottky defect

            B. Frenkel defect

            C. edge dislocation

            D. Miller defect.


42.       The function of diplexer bridge in a TV transmitter is

            A. to prevent the loading of several transmitters by video transmitter

            B. to increase the bandwidth

            C. to increase the power output

            D. to increase the efficiency of transmission.

43.       Sometimes microwave signals follow the earth’s curvature. This due to


            A. Ionospheric reflection

            B. Faraday rotation

            C. Ducting

            D. Ionospheric scatter.

44.       The modes in a reflex Klystron

            A. give the same frequency but different transit time


            B. result from excessive transit time across the resonator gap

            C. are caused by spurious frequency modulation

            D. are just for theoretical considerations.

45.       The capacity of a channel is

            A. number of digits used in coding

            B. volume of information it can take


            C. maximum rate of information transmission

            D. bandwidth required for information







Solution

1.A.     When two inductors are connected in series, the effective inductance is

                        Leff = L1 + L2± 2 m.


                        In this case, Leff = L1 + L2 - 2 M

                                                   = 2 + 4 - 2 × 0.15

                                                   = 5.7 mH.

2.C.     The plane midway between a and -a, i.e., the one passing through ABC and perpendicular to the plane of the paper is an equipotential plane. Hence the potential at B is the same as that of A or C, i.e., 1V.


3.D.     In optocouplers the input signal is applied to the ILED and the output is takes from the phototransistor. These are used to isolate the gate signals from the power circuit.

4.C.     The difference between the indicated value and the true value of a quantity is known as dynamic error.

5.C.     The Principles of homogeneity and superposition are applied to linear time invariant systems.

6.D.     In an 8085 microprocessor system with memory mapped I / 0 arithmetic and logic operations can be directly performed with I / 0 data.

7.B.     Neglecting VBE, IB = 10 / 100 = 0.1 A.


            IC = 100 × 0.1 = 10 A. Drop over RL = 10 v.

            Hence, VCE = 0 which is the condition for saturation.

8.B.                

            whereRr is radiation resistance and Rd is the total loss resistance of the antenna.

9.B.     Arithmetic


10.C.   101.001 = (4 + 0 + 1)

                              (0 + 0.25 + 0.125)

                          = 5.375

11.B.   Dislocations in materials are line defects.

12.A.   Integrator.


13.D.   Frequency in the UHF Range propagate by means of space waves.

14.A.   VHF.

15.C.   a communication satellite is a repeater between many transmitting stations and many receiving stations.
16.C.   V / Ö2 R

17.C.   The point charge Q emanates a total electric displacement flux of Q. If a plane is passed through the point of location of charge and tangential to the sphere, half the flux is on one side and half on the other. The first half of flux is passing through the spherical surface. Thus the average displacement density has a direction opposite to that of n and the magnitude is


                       

            \  Average electric

            field is :

            Eav  =


18.D.   The efficiency of a practical chopper varies from 92 to 99 percent.

19.B.   Electrostatic voltmeter should be used to measure 600 kV a.c. voltage.

20.A.   it can easily be checked that the corresponding function is

                        G (s) = (1 - s) / (1 + s)

            It is seen immediately that | G (jw) |


            = 1 and hence gain is db = 0.

21.A.   Memory address in hex           Instruction                   Remarks

                        2000                            LXI  SP  1000


                        2003                            PUSH  H

                        2004                            PUSH  D                     We do not

2005                            CALL  2025               know the


                                                                        contents of

                                                                        subroutine

                                                                        at 2050.

2006                            50

2007                            20


2008                            POP  H

2009                            HALT

At the completion of the execution of the program, the program counter of the 8085 contains 2050 and the stack pointer contains OFFC.

22.B.   Neglecting, VBE

                         =


               

               

23.B.   Increase = 10 log10 P2 / P1 = 10 log102

                          = 10 × 0.3 = 3dB.

24.D.   Instruction cycle time is exactly the same as the machine cycle time.


25.C.   Taking index of I = 1 and M = 0 computing the value of M with

                        J = 1, 2

                        J = 1

                        M = 0 + 1 + 1 = 2

                        J = 2

                        M = 2 + 1 + 2 = 4


            Taking index of I = 2 and computing the value of M with J = 1, 2

                        J = 1

                        M = 5 + 2 + 1 = 8

                        J = 2

M = 1 + 2 + 2 = 12

26.A.   Resistivity of electrical conductors is most affected by temperature.


27.B.   In CCIR B-system of TV, blanking pulse is placed during retrace interval between each line

28.B.   The polarization required in ground wave propagation is vertical (linear).

29.A.   Multicavity Klystron is not a good low level amplifier because of noise.

30.D.   Transponder comprises of transmitter, receiver and antenna.

31.C.   If the switch is closed at instant t = to, the complete expression for current will be


           

            The transient is zero if wt0 + q - f = 0

            or  t0 = (f - q) / w

Thus it is possible to find to such that there is no transient. Further to depends upon the circuit parameters and the frequency.

                        So, the statements 1 and 3 are true.

32.A.   For points far away, the charge on the ring may be considered to be located be at the centre of the ring. Hence, the dipole moment becomes Qd.


33.C.   a puck-boost regulator provides on output voltage which may be less than or greater than the input voltage. The output voltage polarity is opposite to that of the input voltage. It has high efficiency.

34.A.   The deflection of hot wire instrument depends on RMS value of alternating current.

35.A.   Considering that there are poles of H (s), then

            H1 (s) =

            H3 (s) =


            The impulse responses [a-1 H (s)] can be found and the step response are integrations of the corresponding impulse responses.

36.B.   Dual slope integration type A to D converters are of slow speed and require more number of bits, than successive approximation ADC.

37.C.   Since emitter and base have same polarity and same potential, EBJ is not biased property. Hence, IB is zero and so is IC.

38.C.   The frequency modulated (FM) radio frequency range is nearly 90 - 105 MHz.

39.C.   4 bytes.


40.C.   Resistance will be directly proportional to length and inversely proportional to the cross-sectional area. Let t mm be the thickness of semi-conductor material so that the cross-sectional area for R ohm resistor is 0.1 × t sq. mm and length of semi - conductor material 0.1 mm.

                        For a 0.2 mm × 0.2 mm section, cross - sectional area = 0.2 × t sq. mm. Length = 0.2 mm

            Hence, resistance,

                        = R =


41.C.   Line imperfection in a crystal is called edge dislocation.

42.A.   The function of diplexer bridge in a TV transmitter is to prevent the loading of several transmitters by video transmitter.

43.C.   Sometimes microwave signals follow the earth’s curvature. This is due to ducting.

44.A.   The modes in a reflex Klystron give the same frequency but different transit time.


45.C.   The capacity of a channel is maximum rate of information transmission
Electro & Telecom. Engineering
1.The rank of the matrix  is
      1. zero
      2. 1
      3. 2
2.The particular integration (P.I.) of (D2+4)y = cos 2x is
3. 6 boys and 6 girls in a row randomly. The probability that all the six girls sit together is
4. Value of  is
      1. 1
      2. 2
      3. 3
      4. 0
5. The value of  is
      1. 7
      2. 4
      3. 9
      4. 10
6. The Taylor series expansion of the function F(x) = x/(1+x), around x=0 is
      1. x+x2+x3+x4+…….
      2. x+x2+x3+x4+…….
      3. 2x+42+8x3+16x4+…….
      4. x-x2+x3-x4+…….
7. If x+y=k, x>0, y >0, then xy is the maximum when
      1. x=ky
      2. kx=y
      3. x=y
      4. None of these
8. The probability that two friends share the same birth-month is
      1. 1/6
      2. 1/12
      3. 1/144
      4. 1/24
9. If a function is continuous at a point, then its first derivative
      1. may or may not exist
      2. exist always
      3. will not exist
      4. has a unique value
10. When 2-port networks are connected in parallel, which parameters convenient to use
      1. inverse hybrid
      2. open circuit impedance
      3. short circuit admittance
      4. transmission
11. Fourier’s series expansion of an odd periodic function contains
      1. sine terms only
      2. cosine terms only
      3. Both A and B
      4. None of the above
12. For a LC parallel circuit at resonance, all the statements given below are correct except
      1. the line current is maximum at resonance
      2. the branch currents at resonance are equal
      3. the admittance is minimum at resonance
      4. the angle between the branch current is 180oC at resonance.
13. If a square wave voltage having 5V average value is applied to a low pass filter, then average value of output is
      1. 10 V
      2. 2.5 V
      3. 5 V
      4. 0 V
14. The magnetic field intensity emanating from a closed surface
      1. is zero
      2. is infinite
      3. depends on dipole moments
      4. depends on volumetric compaction factors
15. Brewster angle is the angle for which there is
      1. no reflection and the incident waves in vertically polarized.
      2. Reflection and the incident wave is horizontally polarized
      3. No reflection and the incident wave is horizontally polarized
      4. Any of the above.
16. The minimum value of the life of a transistor to be used in three section R-C phase shift oscillator is
      1. 54.4
      2. 45.4
      3. 44.5
      4. 29
17. A 10 MHz square wave clocks a 5-bit ripple counter. The frequency of third flip-flop’s output would be
      • 2 MHz
      • 1 MHz
      • 2.5 MHz
      • 1.25 MHz
18. The number of comparators needed in a 4-bit flash type ADC is
      • 32
      • 15
      • 8
      • 14
19. A n-channel silicon (Eg = 1.1ev) MOSFET was fabricated using n+ poly-silicon gate and the threshold voltage was found to be 1V. Now, if the gate is changed to p+ poly-silicon, other things remaining the same, the new threshold voltage should be
      • -0.1 V
      • 0 V
      • 1 V
      • 2.1 V
20. A system has the transfer function . It is known as a:
      • low pass system
      • high pass system
      • all pass system
      • process control system
21. The mechanical item constant of a motor is equal to 50 secs. If the friction coefficient is 0.04 Nm/rad/sec, the value of moment of inertial of the motor is equal to 
      • 50 kg – m2
      • kg – m2
      • 1 kg – m2
      • 0.1 kg – m2
22. If the noise figure of a receiver is 1.6, its equivalent noise temperature is
      • 464.00o K
      • 174.00o K
      • 108.75o K
      • 181.25o K
23. The mobility of electron in copper is : Given atomic weight = 63.54, density = 8.96 gm/cc, resistivity = 1.7×10–6 W-cm,

Avogadro’s number = 6.025 ×1023


      • 30 cm2/V-5
      • 43.28 cm2/V-5
      • 50 cm2/V-5
      • data not sufficient
24. In an N type semiconductor, the Fermi-level lies 0.3 eV below the conduction band and at 300oK. If the temperature is increased at 330oK, then the new position of Fermi-level conduction band is
      • 0.1 eV
      • 0.33 eV
      • 0.3 eV
      • 0 eV
25. For the circuit shown in the figure:

assuming b = 100 for the transistor, the transistor will be in

      • the cut-off region
      • the inverse active region
      • the active region
      • the saturation region
26. An antenna array comprises of two dipoles. These dipoles are separated by  wavelength. If these dipoles are fed with currents that are 90o out of phase, then null of the pattern will occur at
    • angle > 90o
    • p
27. A MOSFET amplifier circuit is as shown below

The Tran conductance of the MOSFET is :

      • 0.015 ms
      • 0.03 ms
      • 0.06 ms
      • 1 ms
28. Consider a manage signal X(t) as shown in figures.

This manage signal is applied to AM modulator with modulation index b = 0.5

The modulation efficiency will be:

      • 33%
      • 20%
      • 66.67%
      • 50%
29. The minimum phase shift that can be provided by a lead compensator with transfer function  is
      • 15o
      • 30o
      • 45o
      • 60o
30. The resonant frequency shown by the diagram will be

      • 13.84 Hz
      • 148.44 Hz
      • 158.44 Hz
      • None
31. When a uniform plane wave traveling in air is incident on the plane boundary between air and another dielectric medium with Îr = 9, the reflection coefficient for normal incidence is given by
      • 0.333 Ð0o
      • 0.5 Ð0o
      • 0.5 Ð180o
      • 0.333 Ð180o
32. What will happen to a bird sitting on a conductor carrying 11 KV?
      • It will die of shock.
      • It will not die of shock because its claws are insulated.
      • It will not die because it is insulated from earth and other conductors.
      • None of the above.
33. It an aluminum foil is introduced midway the plates of a capacitor and connected to one plate the capacitance
      1. decreases
      2. increases
      3. increases twice
      4. remains unaltered
34. J = 6E is known as
      1. Ohm’s Law
      2. Ampere’s Law
      3. Coulomb’s Law
      4. Bio Savart’s Law
35. Electrical capacitance in pneumatic systems is analogous to
      1. volume of air
      2. restriction to flow
      3. filled helical tube
      4. None of the above.
36. In aircraft the use of hydraulic motor is preferred over the electric motor because they are
      1. cheap
      2. flexible
      3. not electrical driven
      4. light and have high torque to inertia ratio
37. Which of the following emitter material usually needs less than 1 kV as plate voltage?
      1. Pure tungsten
      2. Thoriated tungsten
      3. Oxide coated
      4. All the above
38. At a P-N junction, the potential barrier is due to the charges on either side of the junction, these charges are
      1. minority carriers
      2. majority carriers
      3. both A and B
      4. fixed donor and acceptor ions
39. In a class A amplifier utilizing a direct resistive load, the maximum conversion efficiency could be
      1. 25%
      2. 40%
      3. 46.5%
      4. 85%
40. If 1.5% of the output of an amplifier is feedback positively to the input, the minimum gain required of the amplifier for oscillations to occur, is
      1. 16.6
      2. 14.4
      3. 66.6
      4. 95
41. Ultra high frequency oscillations work in the range
      1. 10 Hz to 10 kHz
      2. 1 kHz to kHz
      3. 20 kHz to 30 MHz
      4. above 30 MHz
42. If a 1 MHz signal is combined with the output of a 1.4 MHz oscillator, the best frequency obtained will be
      1. 150 kHz
      2. 250 kHz
      3. 400 kHz
      4. 600 kHz
43. The D flip-flop and T flip-flop are respectively used as
      1. delay and toggle switch
      2. toggle switch and delay gate
      3. both used as toggle switch
      4. both used as delay gates.
44. In a monolithic integrated circuit the resistor is obtained by
      1. utilizing P-type base diffusion only
      2. utilizing the bulk resistivity of one of the diffused areas or thin film techniques
      3. diffusing a semiconductor in the chip
      4. diffusing carbon in the chip
45. When a large number of analog signals are to be converted an analog multiplexer is used. In this case most suitable A.D. converter will be
      1. up-down counter type
      2. dual slop type
      3. forward counter type
      4. successive approximation type
46. The output of a two input EX-NOR gate is high when
      1. one input is high and other is low
      2. both the inputs re high
      3. both the inputs are low
      4. both the inputs are same
47. An electric wrist watch has a clock of frequency 32 kHz. To divide this frequency down to 1 Hz it is necessary to have



  • one four-bit binary counter one T flip-flop and one decade counter


  • three decade counters, one four-bit binary counter and one T flip-flop


  • two decade counters, one two-bit binary counter and a T flip-flop


  • four four-bit binary counters and one decade counter.


  • 48. The initial and final counts of mod-16 counter are
        • 0000 to 1001
        • 0001 to 1111
        • 0000 to 1111
        • 0000 to 1000
    49. Which of the following logic circuits is the fastest?
        • RTL
        • DTL
        • TTL
        • All the above have speed
    50. What command must have been used on the diskette before you can use the SYS command to copy the DOS system files to it?
        • TREE
        • APPEND
        • FORMAT /S or FORMAT /S
        • FORMAT /V
    51. In the CONFIG.SYS file, the command STACKS = 9,256 means
        • 9,256 stacks of 64 KB each having been set aside for Multitasking
        • 9 stacks of 256 bytes have been set aside for DOS kernel operations
        • 9 stacks of 256 bytes have been set aside for DOS disk buffering
        • 9 stacks of 256 bytes have been set aside for processing IRQS
    52. How much should you specify in RAM-DRIVE if you want to create a 640 K RAM drive?
        • 640
        • 64
        • 1024
        • 32767
    53. What is the name of the computer based EMMS that provides a common forum where users can check in at their convenience, post messages, actively exchange ideas and participate in ongoing discussion
        • e-mail
        • Bulleting board system (BBS)
        • Teleconferencing
        • Video-conferencing
    54. Many larger organizations with other offices in different countries of the world connect their computers through telecommunication satellites and telephone line. Such a communication network is called
        • LAN
        • WAN
        • VAN
        • MAN
    55. In photoconductive effect, radiation of wavelength greater than critical wavelength will
        • produce protons
        • produce free electrons
        • doesn’t produce free electron
        • emit electrons from the surface
    56. On which of the following principles the desired squeeze, weld and hold time durations are obtained in the digital timer of a resistance welding machine?
        • Digital-to-analog conversion
        • Analog-to-digital conversion
        • Time multiplexing
        • Time-to-voltage conversion
    57. The anode current through a conducting SCR is 10A. If its gate current is made one-fourth, the anode current  will become
        • 1 A
        • 4 A
        • 10 A
        • None of these
    58. When two A.C. signals of the same frequencies and amplitudes are applied to the X and Y inputs of a CRO respectively, the resulting pattern on the screen will be
        • a parabola
        • a circle
        • a straight line
        • an ellipse
    59. One volt range on a 4½ digit digital multimeter can be read upto
        • 1.0000 V
        • 0.9999 V
        • 1.999 V
        • 1.9999 V
    60. A signal of 10 m V at 75 MHz is to be measured. Which of the following instruments can be used?
        • Digital multimeter
        • cathode ray oscilloscope
        • Moving iron voltmeter
        • VTVM
    61. In a Wein bridge oscillator, the frequency of oscillation
        • does not depend on capacitance
        • is directly proportional to capacitance
        • is inversely proportional to capacitance
        • is inversely proportional to square of capacitance
    62. A permanent magnet is used in a telephone receiver
        • to avoid second harmonics
        • to provide large bandwidth
        • to amplify speech
        • to provide greater sensitivity
    63. The velocity of electromagnetic waves in free space
        • decrease with increase of frequency
        • increases with increase of frequency
        • may decrease or increase with increase of frequency
        • is independent of frequency
    64. Radio frequencies are of the range
        • 20 kHz – 200 kHz
        • 200 kHz – 20 MHz
        • 3 MHz – 30 MHz
        • 30 MHz – 3GHz
    65. Microwave signal transmitted towards the sky are
        • unable to reach the ionosphere because of the strong absorption in the lower atmosphere.
        • strongly reflected by the ionosphere
        • transmitted by the ionosphere
        • strongly absorbed by the ionosphere.
    66. It is required to match a 200 W load to a 300 W transmission line, to reduce the SWR along the line to 1. The characteristic impedance of the quarter wave transformer used for this purpose, if it is directly connected to the load, must be
        • 2000 W
        • 600 W
        • 245 W
        • 40 W
    67. Two transmission lines P and Q are having SWRs equal to 1/5 and 7/5 respectively. It can be concluded that
        • both have identical SWR
        • Q is better than P
        • P has the higher SWR
        • is better than Q
    68. For an AM wave having a power of 800 W at its carrier frequency and modulation index of 90 percent, the power content of each sideband is 
        • 162 W
        • 262 W
        • 300 W
        • 400 W
    69. An FM signal containing the sound intelligence of a television broadcast has a maximum frequency deviation of 50 kHz. The depth of modulation is
        • 40 percent
        • 60 percent
        • 100 percent
        • None of these
    70. For a satellite communication, the lower limit of frequency is
        • 1 MHz
        • 10 MHz
        • 20 GHz
        • 200 GHz
    71. Most commercial satellite activity occurs in which band(s)?
        1. S and P
        2. X
        3. C and Ku
        4. L
    72. Distribution of electric power from one place to another is done at high A.C. voltage because
        1. It increases brightness of the light
        2. Wastage of electricity is reduced
        3. Stealing of electric wires is reduced
        4. Electricity moves in a very short time
    73. When a monochromatic light wave travels from one medium to another , its unchanged parameter is 
        1. wavelength
        2. velocity
        3. frequency
        4. amplitude
    74. The corrosion resistance of steel is increased by alloying its with which of the following?
        1. Vanadium
        2. Aluminum
        3. Copper
        4. Chromium
    75. In an electric motor, magnetic noise is least
        1. at no load
        2. at full load
        3. at full speed
        4. at synchronous speed
    76. In the amplifiers, transistor inter-junction capacitance causes which of the following?
        1. Phase shift
        2. Harmonic distortion
        3. Noise
        4. Parasitic oscillation
    77. What will happen if A.C. is fed by mistake to a D.C. motor?
        1. The motor will run at its normal speed.
        2. The motor will run at a tower speed
        3. The efficiency will be very poor
        4. The motor will burn as the eddy current in the field produce heat
    78. Two-value capacitor motor finds increased application as compressor motor in small home air-conditioners because   
        1. it is comparatively cheaper
        2. it has almost non-destructible capacitor
        3. it has low starting as well as running current as relatively high power factor
        4. it is quiet in operation
    79. A mica capacitor and a ceramic capacitor both have the same physical dimensions; which will have more value of capacitance?
        1. Ceramic capacitor
        2. Mica capacitor
        3. Both will have identical value of capacitance
        4. It depends on applied voltage
    80. In case of a 3-phase wound-rotor induction motor, an increase in rotor resistance affects the motor performance in the following way
        1. the motor efficiency decreases
        2. the motor efficiency increases
        3. starting current decreases
        4. starting current increases
    81. Which of the following is the unit of magnetic flux density
        1. Waber
        2. Lumens
        3. Texla
        4. Darof
    82. A laminated iron core has reduced eddy-current losses because
        1. more wire can be used with less D.C resistance in coil.
        2. the laminations are insulated form each other
        3. the magnetic flux is concentrated in the air gap of the core.
        4. the laminations are stacked vertically.
    83. The maximum value of torque that a synchronous motor can develop without losing its synchronism is known as
        1. slip torque
        2. pull out torque
        3. braking torque
        4. synchronizing torque
    84. In a cable, the maximum stress under operating conditions is at:
        1. insulation layer
        2. sheath
        3. armour
        4. conductor surface
    SECTION –II

    GENERAL AWARENESS
    85. Which of the following Vedas is the oldest?
        1. Samveda
        2. Yaju veda
        3. Atharva veda
        4. Rig veda
    86. Who wrote Panchtantra?
        1. Bhavbhuti
        2. Vishnu Sharma
        3. Kalidasa
        4. Shri Harsha
    87. Who was the last Guru of the Sikhs?
        1. Guru Govind Singh
        2. Guru Tegh Bahadur
        3. Guru Nanak Dev
        4. Guru Harkishan
    88. Who said, “Man is a social animal.”
        1. Aristotle
        2. Rosseau
        3. Plato
        4. Laski
    89. Which one of the following dynasties was ruling the time of Alexander’s invasion?
        1. The Nanda Dynasty
        2. The Maurya Dynasty
        3. The Kanva Dynasty
        4. The Sunga Dynasty
    90. The Census was introduced for the first time in India during the tenure of
        1. Lord Cornwallis
        2. Lord William Bentinck
        3. Lord Rippon
        4. Lord Clive
    91. Who designed the National Flag of India?
        1. Pingly Venkaiyya
        2. Vallabh Bhai Patel
        3. B.R. Ambedkar
        4. Aurobindo Ghosh
    92. From which of the following state does the Tropic of cancer not pass?
        1. Rajasthan
        2. Jharkhand
        3. Tripura
        4. Manipur
    93. Which among the following is the smallest state area-wise?
        1. Nagaland
        2. Mizoram
        3. Meghalaya
        4. Manipur
    94. As per Census 2001, which one of the following states recorded the lowest growth rates of population during the period of 1991 to 2001.
        1. Andhra Pradesh
        2. Karnataka
        3. Kerala
        4. Tamil Nadu
    95. Which of the following rivers does not form a delta?
        1. Ganges
        2. Narmada
        3. Mandavi
        4. Mahanadi
    96. The weight of an object will be minimum when it is placed at:
        1. The North Pole
        2. The South Pole
        3. The Equator
        4. The Center of the Earth
    97. Which one of the following is a land-locked country?
        1. Cambodia
        2. Thailand
        3. Vietnam
        4. Laos
    98. Earthquake travels fastest in-
        1. Soil
        2. Molten Rock
        3. Water
        4. Flexible Rock
    99. Joint sitting of both the houses of Indian Parliament is presided over by
        1. The President of India
        2. The Speaker of Lok Sabha
        3. The Chairman of Rajya Sabha
        4. The Prime Minister
    100. To who is the Council of Ministers collectively responsible?
        1. The President
        2. The Prime Minister
        3. The Lok Sabha
        4. The Rajya Sabha
    101. The Vice-President of India is elected by an electoral college consisting of:
        1. only the elected members of both Houses of Parliament
        2. only Rajya Sabha members
        3. all members of Parliament and State Legislative Assemblies
        4. all members of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
    102. Centre-State financial distribution takes place following the recommendations made by the
        1. Inter-State Council
        2. Finance Commission
        3. Planning Commission
        4. Parliament
    103. Sellers market denotes a situation where –
        1. Commodities are available at competitive rates
        2. Demand exceeds supply
        3. Supply exceeds demand
        4. Supply and demand are equal
    104. Development means economic growth plus –
        1. Inflation
        2. Deflation
        3. Price Stability
        4. Social change
    105. Which of the following ports of India has a free trade zone?
        1. Cochin
        2. Mumbai
        3. Kandla
        4. Diu
    106. Dual pricing implies –
        1. Wholesale price and Retail price
        2. Pricing of agents and Pricing of retailer
        3. Price fixed by Government and Price in the open market
        4. Daily prices and Weekly prices
    107. ‘Sudden Death’ rule is associated with:
        1. Wrestling
        2. Hockey
        3. Water Polo
        4. Football
    108. Galvanised Iron sheets have a coating of –
        1. Tin
        2. Lead
        3. Zinc
        4. Chromium
    109. The Principle on which a Jet Engine is base is:
        1. Theory of Angular Momentum
        2. Newton’s third Law
        3. Theory of Friction
        4. Theory of Kinetic Energy
    110. The different colours of different stars are due to the variations in -
        1. temperature
        2. pressure
        3. density
        4. radiation from them
    111. The speed of light will be minimum while passing through
        1. glass
        2. vacuum
        3. air
        4. water
    112. Which of the following tennis tournaments is played on Clay court?
        1. Australian Open
        2. French Open
        3. Wimbledon
        4. U.S. open
    113. The instrument that measures and record the purity of milk is called:
        1. Hydrometer
        2. Hygrometer
        3. Lactometer
        4. Barometer
    114. At which part of the tongue are the taste buds for sweet taste located?
        1. Tip
        2. Back
        3. Sides
        4. Middle
    115. Stem cuttings are commonly used for re-growing –
        1. Cotton
        2. Banana
        3. Jute
        4. Sugar Cane
    116. Which one of the following human nutrients plays an important role in the coagulation of blood?
        1. Calcium
        2. Iron
        3. Potassium
        4. Sodium
    117. Which of the following is known as first line defense for the body?
        1. Antibodies
        2. WBC
        3. Nails
        4. Skin
    118. In the case of a test tube baby
        1. Fertilisation takes place inside the test tube
        2. Development of the baby takes place inside the test tube
        3. Fertilization takes place outside the mother’s body
        4. Unfertilized egg develops inside the test tube
    119. Which of the following cell organelles is the site for Protein synthesis?
      • Ribosome
      • Mitochondria
      • Chloroplast
      • Golgi Complex
    VERBAL ABILTY
    In questions 120-123, the word which is opposite in meaning to the word given on the top is:

    1. SPURIOUS
          1. genuine
          2. angry
          3. glorious
          4. antique
    2. ENUNCIATE
          1. pray
          2. deliver
          3. request
          4. mumble
    3. RESILIENT
          1. pungent
          2. worthy
          3. unyielding
          4. insolent
    4. EXPEDITE
          1. explore
          2. obstruct
          3. prompt
          4. disburse
    Instructions for Questions 124-128: Read the following passage and answer the questions after it.

    Differentiation of the two kinds of socialization is to some extent explained by reference to the complex manpower requirements of the modern state. The social learning acquired through upbringing often needs to the extended because it does not provided for the national need in many countries for trained personnel like clerical workers technician, civil servants and so on. In this respect secondary socialization can be regarded as complementary to primary socialization. The former, we might say, provides the individual with skills which allow him to take on specialist employment and to have a role in a larger social environment, whereas the latter allows him to be integrated into the particular social group into which he is born. Thus we might argue that primary socialization defined the individual’s role in a small social group and enables him to identify himself as a member of his family and his local community. Secondary socialization, on the other hand provides for the individual’s role in society as a whole and enables him to identify himself as a citizen of the state. In Short, and to oversimplify, we might say that the first kind of socialization provides a sense of security and social interaction, whereas the second provides opportunity and the possibility of social mobility.


    1. Which of the following is NOT possible through primary socialization?
          1. defining individual’s role in a small social group
          2. identifying oneself with one’s family
          3. identifying oneself as a citizen of the state
          4. integrating into the local community
    2. The modern state very much requires:
          1. primary socialization of its citizens
          2. many unskilled workers
          3. a large social environment
          4. specialist manpower
    3.  The opportunity to go up in one’s profession and society is:
          1. derived from one’s upbringing
          2. derived form secondary socialization
          3. availed through complex manpower requirements
          4. availed by identifying oneself with one’s state
    4. Secondary socialization is important in one’s life because it helps one to:
          1. take one specialized employment
          2. identify oneself with one’s family
          3. define his role in his social group
          4. integrate with his community
    5. Complex manpower requirements means –
          1. man requires complex powers
          2. highly trained personnel are required
          3. acquiring power in a complex process
          4. power of man is required to be complex
    Instructions for questions 129-133: Read the following passage and answer the questions after it.

    Nowadays the fine old simplicities are lost. Physicist’s assure us that there is no such thing as matter and psychologists assure us that there is no such thing as mind. This is an unprecedented occurrence.

    To begin with the latter some of them attempt to reduce everything that seems to the mental activity to an activity of the body. There are however various difficulties in the way of reducing mental activity to physical activity.

    What we can really say on the basis of Physics itself is that what we have hitherto called out body is really as elaborate scientific construction, not corresponding to any physical reality. The modern would be materialist, thus finds himself in a curious conceptual dilemma. Evidently we have to look for something that is neither body nor mind, out of which both can spring.

    The common man however thinks that material objects must certainly exist since they are evident to the senses. The physicists disagree as matter in motion which in motion which used to seem so unquestionable turns out to be a concept quite inadequate for the needs of physics.

    1. In the sentence “To begin with the latter, some of them…..” latter refers to :
          1. physicists
          2. matter
          3. psychologists
          4. mind
    2. “But the philosopher was apt to reduce it usually to ……’. Here ‘it’ refers to :
        • his analysis of man
        • the human body
        • the mind of the man
        • idea in the mind
    1. A plain man thinks that material objects exist because-
          1. they constitute the metaphysics
          2. they are real in his through process
          3. certain electrons and protons form them
          4. he can perceive them
    2. Psychologists mentioned in the passage–
          1. believe that mental activities get manifested in abnormal physical activities
          2. try to equate mental activity to physical activity
          3. do not accept the distinction between body and soul
          4. support the physicist’s perception of a body
    3. Which of the following does the modern science support according to the passage?
          1. Mind the matter are necessary to organize events
          2. Metaphysical division of events
          3. The discovery of equally important mind and matter
          4.  Mind and Soul do not exist as an entity
    In questions 134-138, then word which is nearest in meaning to the word given on the top is:

    1. ATROCITY
          1. endurance
          2. hatred
          3. brutality
          4. aversion
    2. FORTITUDE
          1. enthusiasm
          2. bravery
          3. cleverness
          4. excitement
    3. GARRULOUS
          1. sociable
          2. showy
          3. gourmet
          4. talkative
    4. RESPERCUSSION
          1. reaction
          2. resistance
          3. repetition
          4. repulsion
    5. SYCOPHANT
          1. fun-loving
          2. self-controlled
          3. benevolent
          4. flatterer
    In questions 139-143, the key word is used in four different ways. Choose the options in which the usage of the word is NOT correct.


    1. COVER
          1. The light was so bright that I had to cover my eyes.
          2. Did you see the cover of the college magazine this year?
          3. We took cover from the rain in a bus shelter.
          4. People try to avoid tax by setting up a cover to donate money to charity.
    2. PUSH
          1. The manufacturers are really pushing this new shampoo.
          2. He has difficulty pushing his feelings into words.
          3. We should be able to move this table if we push it together.
          4. She pushed through the crowd saying that she was a doctor.
    3. FLASH
          1. Camera bulbs flashed as the Prime Minister appeared on the podium.
          2. The news on Tsunami flashed around the world within minutes.
          3. Violence flashed in many areas of the town last night.
          4. A strange through flashed through her mind.
    4. OPENING
          1. The audience could hardly hear the opening remarks.
          2. I like to get out in the opening air on weekends.
          3. The films opening night was a huge success.
          4. the opening of the novel is by far its best part
    5. ISSUE
          1. The problem came to a successful issue.
          2. My article appeared in the August issue of the magazine.
          3. The government issued a special stamp on World Health Day.
          4. There were problems of property as he died without any issue.
    In questions 144-146, each statement has a part missing. Choose the best option to complete the statement.

    1. Of the many technological advances that took place during the 19th Century none was to have _____________ of the steam engine.
          1. quite such enormous impact as inventing
          2. quite such an enormous impact as the invention
          3. quite such enormous an impact like inventing
          4. quite such an enormous impact like invention
    2. One of the most ___________ which holds that America is a highly materialistic nation, a nation which exalts the money-grubber and has a minimum  of respect for things of the mind and spirit.
          1. fashionable of the clichés is the one
          2. fashionable clichés is the one
          3. fashionable cliché is the one
          4. fashionable of the cliché is that
    3. ____________who watch a great deal of television and also among children, who view television shortly before bed time.
          1. Among children more common sleep disturbances are
          2. More common sleep disturbances among children are
          3. sleep disturbance among children are more common
          4. sleep disturbance are more common among children
    In questions 147-149, a sentence with two blanks is given. From the alternative pairs, select the words of which best completes the given sentence.

    1. State hospitality extended to a visiting foreign dignitary is often used symbolically to convey ________ messages, and very often pomp and ceremony serve to _________ sharp differences.
          1. subtle…..mask
          2. loud…..camouflage
          3. sharp…..hide
          4. important.....accentuate
    2. A number of journalist and cameramen were ______ questioned by the police when they went to cover the ___________ drive of the state government.
          1. deliberately…..constitute
          2. mistakenly…..discover
          3. inadvertently…..install
          4. wantonly..…create
    3. It is _________ to try to destroy pests completely with chemical poisons, for as each new chemical pesticides is introduced, the insects gradually become __________ to it.
    Quantitative Aptitude
    1. Two pipes A and B can fill a tank in 36 minutes and 45 minutes respectively. Pipe C can empty the tank in 30 minutes. First A and B are opened. After 7 minutes, C is also opened. In how much total time, the tank will be full.
          • 36 minutes
          • 42 minutes
          • 46 minutes
          • 45 minutes
    2. A toy was sold at a loss for Rs. 60. Had it been sold for Rs. 81, the gain would have been 3/4th of the former loss. The cost of the toy is -
          • Rs. 65
          • Rs. 70
          • Rs. 81
          • Rs. 72
    3. Vijay invested Rs. 50,000 partly at 10% and partly at 20%. His total income after a year was Rs. 6000. How much did he invest at the rate of 10%?
          • Rs. 30,000
          • Rs. 40,000
          • Rs. 12,000
          • Rs. 20,000
    4. Two alloys A and B contain iron in the ration 7:3. IF 25 kg of alloy A and 25 kg of alloy B are mixed to form a new alloy which contains 35% of iron, find the amount of iron in alloy B.
          • 15 kg
          • 7.8 kg
          • 8.7 kg
          • 18.2 kg
    5. Two trains 121 m and 99 m long, are running in opposite directions at speeds of 40 km/hr and 32 kg/hr respectively. In what time will they completely clear each other form the moment they meet?
          • 7 seconds
          • 9 seconds
          • 10 seconds
          • 11 seconds
    6. The rate of interest on a sum of money is 4% per annum for the first two years, 6% per annum for the next 4 years and 8% per annum for the period beyond 6 year. If the simple interest accrued by the sum for a total period of 9 years is Rs. 1120, what is the sum?
          • Rs. 1500
          • Rs. 2000
          • Rs. 2500
          • Rs. 4000
    7. A soldier ascends a greased pole 36 meters high. He ascends 3 metres in first minute and descends 1 metre in second minute. He again ascends 3 meters in third minute and descends 1 metre in fourth minute and so on. In how much time will he reach to top?
          • 36 minutes
          • 33 minutes
          •  minutes
          •  minutes
    8. The current of a stream runs at 1 km.hr. A motor boat goes 35km upstream and is back again to the starting point in 12 hours. The speed of motorboat in still water is:
          • 6 km/hr
          • 7 km/hr
          • 8 km/hr
          • 8.5 km/hr
    9. The average age of a couple (a husband and wife) was 23 years when they were married 5 years ago. The average age of the husband, the wife and a child, who was born during the interim period, is 20 years now. What is the present age of the child?
    10. Kripal, Vinay and Apoorva went for lunch to a restaurant. Kripal had Rs. 100 with him, Vinay had Rs. 104 and decided to give a tip of Rs. 16. They further decided to share to total expenses in the ratio of the amounts of money each carried. The amount of money which Kripal paid more than what Apporva paid is
          • Rs. 120
          • Rs. 200
          • Rs. 60
          • Rs. 36
    11. Two merchants each sell an article for Rs. 1000. If merchants A computes his profit on cost price, while merchant B computes his profit on selling price, they end up making profits of 25% respectively. By how much is the profit made by merchant B greater than that of merchant A?
          • Rs. 66.67
          • Rs. 50
          • Rs. 125
          • Rs. 200
    12. What is the greatest value of a positive integer ‘n’ such that 3n is a factor of 1818?
          • 15
          • 18
          • 30
          • 33
    13. If x+y=5; x+z=7 and y+z=12, then the value of x+y+z=?
          • 12
          • 2
          • 5
          • 24
    14. What is the remainder when 3x2–2x2y-13xy2+10y3 is divided by (x-2y)?
          • 0
          • y
          • x+y
          • x+2y
    15. At a certain ice cream parlor, customers can choose from among five different ice cream flavors and can choose either a sugar cone or a waffle cone. Considering both ice cream flavor and cone types, how many distinct triple-scoop cones with three different ice cream flavors are available?
          • 12
          • 16
          • 20
          • 24
    16. If a straight line y = ax+b passes through (2,1) and (-1,0), then ordered pair (a,b) is:
          • (3, -1)
          • (-1,3)
          • (3,3)
    17. If ABCD is a quadrilateral such that its diagonals AC and BC intersect at O to form four triangles equal in area . Then ABCD must be a:
          • parallelogram
          • Rectangle
          • Square
          • All of the above
    18. The chords AP and AQ of a circle of radius 6 cm are at a distance 3cm and  respectively from the centre O of the circle, then the area of the smaller sector POQ is :
          • 24 p cm2
          • 21 p cm2
          • 15 p cm2
          • 12 p cm2
    19. On the xy-coordinate plane, points A and B both lie on the circumference of a circle whose center is O, and the length of AB equals the circle’s diameter. If the (x,y)  coordinates of O are (2,1) and the (x,y) coordinates of B are (4,6), what are the (x,y) coordinates of A?
    20. ABCD is a square, each of side of which is 2 cm. Taking AB and AD as axes, the equation of the circle circumscribing the square is :
          • x2+y2 = (x+y)
          • x2+y2 = 2(x+y)
          • x2+y2 = 4
          • x2+y2 = 16
    21. If ‘a’ is the length of the base and ‘b’ the height of a right angled triangle hypotenuse of which is h and if the values of a and b are positive integers, which of the following cannot be a value of the square of the hypotenuse?
          • 13
          • 23
          • 37
          • 41
    22. The circumference of the front wheel of a cart is 30 ft long and that of the back wheel is 36 ft long. What is the distance travelled by the cart, when the front wheel has done five more revolutions than the rear wheel?
      • 200 ft
      • 250 ft
      • 750 ft
      • 900 ft
    1. Four circular card-board pieces; each of radius 7 cm are placed in such a way that each piece touches two other pieces. The are of the space enclosed by the four pieces is:
          • 21 cm2
          • 42 cm2
          • 84 cm2
          • 168 cm2
    2. The circumcircle of an equilateral triangle of side 6 cm is drawn. Find the area that is inside the circle but outside the triangle?
          • 22.21
          • 19.78
          • 22.11
          • 18.76
    3. A spherical lead ball of radius 10 cm is melted and small lead balls of radius 5mm are made. The total number of possible small lead balls is:
          • 800
          • 125
          • 400
          • 8000
    4. A rectangle, having a 72 cm perimeter, is divided into 9 congruent rectangles and two  congruent squares. The edge of square is the same as one of the edges of the smaller rectangle. What is the perimeter and area of the smaller rectangle?
          • 24 cm, 36 cm2
          • 24 cm, 32 cm2
          • 12 cm, 32 cm2
          • 12 cm, 36 cm2
    5. In a triangle ABC, the sum of the exterior angles at B and C is equal to:
          • 180o - ÐBAC
          • 180o + ÐBAC
          • 180o - 2ÐBAC
          • 180o + 2ÐBAC
    6. If x = sin0+cos0 and y = sin 20, then which of the following is true?
          • x2-y=1
          • x2 =1-y
          • y=x2+1
          • y2=x+1
    7. The angle of elevation of the top of a 30 m high tower, from two points on the level ground on its opposite sides are 45 degrees and 60 degrees. What is the distance between the two points?
          • 30
          • 51.96
          • 47.32
          • 81.96
    8. A person aims at a bird on top of a 5m high pole with the elevation of 30 degree. If a bullet is fired, it will travel P m before reaching the bird. The a value of P (in m) is :
          • 10
    9. Of the two boxes, Box 1 contains 2 Pink and 5 White chalks while Box 2 contains 4 Blue and 3 Green chalks. Four chalks are taken out, two from Box 1 and remaining from Box 2. What is the probability of getting four different colour chalks?
    10. A problem is given to three students x,y,z whose chances of solving the problem are  and  respectively. What is the probability that the problem will be solved?
      In questions 182-183, a series is given. Which one of the number or letter-number clusters in the given series is wrong.
    11. G 4 T, J 10 R, M 20 P, P 43 N, S 90 L
        • G 4 T
        • J 10 R
        • M 20 P
        • P 43 N
    12. 5, 12,19,33,47,75,104.
          • 33
          • 47
          • 75
          • 101
      In questions 183 to 185, a number-series is given. Which one of the alternatives will ensure the sequential continuity of the series?
    13. 3, 6, 5, 20, 7, 42, 9,……..
        • 54
        • 60
        • 66
        • 72
    14. 0, 2, 8, 14, 24, …….
          • 34
          • 35
          • 36
          • 42
      In question 186-187, a series is given with a blank shown by a question mark. Which one of the alternatives can correctly fill-in the question mark?
    15. 6, 15, 3, (?), 143, 221
        • 63
        • 77
        • 90
        • 56
    16. 7T19, 9Q16, 11N13, 13K10, 15H7, (?)
          • 17 E 4
          • 18 F 5
          • 17 E 3
          • 18 D 4
      In questions 188-189, a letter series is given, in which some letters are missing. The missing letters are given in the proper sequence as one of the alternatives. Find the correct alternative.
    17. aa _ ab _ aaa _ a
          • aaab
          • aabb
          • abab
          • baaa
    18. mnonopqopqrs _ _  _  _ _ _
          • mnopq
          • oqrst
          • pqrst
          • qrstu
    19. The arrangement of letters of which of the given clusters is different from the rest?
          • GTSH
          • BYXC
          • ETUF
          • LONM
    20. The arrangement of letters of which of the given clusters is different from the rest?
          • BD
          • CI
          • EY
          • AC
    21. In a certain code ‘MANISH’ is written as 415918. How will ‘PRASHANT’ be written in the same code?
          • 79181152
          • 79181125
          • 79118125
          • 79118152
    22. If in an cricket season, Mumbai defeated Hyderabad twice. Bangalore defeated Mumbai twice, Hyderabad defeated Bangalore twice, Mumbai defeated Kolkata twice and Bangalore defeated Kolkata twice. Which of the teams lost the largest number of matches?
            • Mumbai
            • Hyderabad
            • Bangalore
            • Kolkata
    1. A bus for Bombay leaves after every forty minutes from a bus stand. An enquiry clerk told a passenger that the bus had already left ten minutes ago and the next bus will leave at 10.45 a.m. At what time did the enquiry clerk give this information to the passenger?
          1. 10:05 a.m.
          2. 9:55 a.m.
          3. 10:35 a.m.
          4. 10:15 a.m.
    2. As a ‘Lion’ is to ‘Cub’, a ‘Camel’ is to:
          1. Signet
          2. Stag
          3. Calf
          4. Foal
    3. Identify the correct deduction.
    4. Statements: All labourers are wrestlers. All grocers are labourers. Conclusions:
          1. All grocers are wrestlers
          2. Some wrestlers are grocers.
          3. Some wrestler are labourers.
          4. Some labourers are grocers.
            1. All conclusions are correct
            2. Only 1 and 4 conclusions are correct
            3. Only 4 conclusion is correct
            4. Only 2 and 3 conclusions are correct
    5. Identify the correct deduction.
    6. Statements: All fruits are sweets. All sweets are chocolates. Conclusions:
          1. All sweets are fruits.
          2. All fruits are chocolates
          3. Some chocolates are sweets.
          4. No chocolate is sweet.
            1. Only conclusion 1 is correct
            2. All conclusions are correct
            3. Only conclusion 2 and 3 are correct
            4. Only conclusion 3 and 4 are correct
    7. In the question, five figures marked 1,2,3,4 and 5 are given on the top. Which among the figures marked a,b,c,d given below it would continue the series 1-2-3-4-5.
      In each of the questions 199 to 200, five figures marked 1,2,3,4 and 5 continuous a continuous series with a gap marked (?) are given. Which figure from among the figures marked a,b,c,d given below them would accurately fill-in the place marked with the questions mark.
    8. Answer the Question:
      1. Answer the Question:
        In each of the questions 201 to 203, the figure marked as X is incomplete. Which of the figures marked as a, b, c, and d would accurately complete the given figure?
      2.  
      3.  
      4.  
        In each of the questions 204 to 206, a figure drawn on a transparent paper is given on the left hand side. Which (from among the given four figures given on the right hand side marked as abcd) will this figure take if its is folded along the dotted lines.
      5.  
      6.  
      7.  
    In each of the questions 207 to 209, figure 1 and 2 as also 3 and 4 (?) have a certain relationship. From among the given figures a, b, c and d which one, when placed at the position of the question mark, would establish the same relationship.

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